Answer:
Cash payback period= 3.2 years.
Explanation:
Lets first understand what a cash payback period is. As the name suggest, payback period is the time duration within which a business recovers it's investment and/or capital investment and the payback period is expressed in number of years. The formula for payback period is as follows:
Payback period= initial investment ÷ annual cash-flows
In the question annual operating income is given just for distraction.
payback period = $324000 ÷ 100000
payback period= 3.2 years.
This means if Hayden company decides to invest in the machine, it would recover the cost of machine (i.e it's investment) in approximately three and half years.
Answer:
$2,400 in 2019 are deductible as alimony.
Step-by-step explanation:
Hillary get divorced in the year = 2016
She has to pay her ex-spouse $200 per month until her son reaches 18 years of age in 7 years.
His son will reach of the age of 18 = 2016 + 7 = 2023
She has to pay $200 till 2023 and $120 thereafter.
Her payments are deductible as alimony in 2019 would be = $200 × 12
= $2,400
$2,400 in 2019 are deductible as alimony.
Answer:
The correct answer is c,alienating local suppliers
Explanation:
The presence of strong negotiator who is an expert in the field of sourcing is an advantage inherent in centralized purchasing,hence option A is not correct.
Cost and quality control implies that sourcing in large quantity gives the buyer entity a strong bargaining power and it is able to procure at the lowest price possible.Whereas,the control relates to the goods been received at central location before being dispatched to the department requiring it,implies that all items can be properly checked and confirmed fit for purpose.As result option is wrong as well.
The only odd option is C,as centralized purchasing is not aimed at alienating local suppliers since it is not global sourcing
Answer: Option (B) is correct.
Explanation:
Correct option: Any central bank purchase of assets results in an increase in the domestic money supply, while any central bank sale of assets causes the money supply to decline.
This is basically one of the monetary policy instrument which helps the central bank in order to control the money supply in the economy.
If central bank wants to contract the money supply then central bank sell some of the assets in the market to reduce currency in circulation. After the implementation of this policy, domestic consumers left with less cash in hand and hence they demand less.
On the other hand, if central bank wants to increase the money supply then central bank purchase some of the assets from the market to increase the currency in circulation. After the implementation of this policy, domestic consumers are with more cash in hand and hence they demand more.
∴ This is the statement that is most correct.
This is called: <span>Constructive discharge
</span><span>If I managed to help you, please make sure to mark my answer as the "Brainliest" answer. Thanks! :)</span>