Yes you do cause you already used the coupon or promo code
Answer:
$1,524 underapplied
Explanation:
Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated Manufacturing Overhead ÷ Estimated Activity.
= $560,324 ÷ 22,060
= $25.40
Applied Overheads = Predetermined overhead rate × Actual Activity
= $25.40 × 22,000
= $558,800
<em>Where,</em>
Actual Overheads are $560,324 (given)
<em>Conditions :</em>
If Actual Overheads > Applied Overheads, we say overheads are under-applied and if Actual Overheads < Applied Overheads, we say that overheads are over-applied.
<em>Therefore ,</em>
In our case, Actual Overheads : $560,324 > Applied Overheads : $558,800. Overheads have been under-applied by $1,524 ($560,324 - $558,800).
Answer:
Wants is less important because you don't need it/them to survive, you can live with only your needs, you should only get your wants only if you can afford it and still have enough money for needs.
Explanation:
I don't know if that made sense lol
Answer:
Year 1 = $1,100
Year 2 = $1,330
Year 3 = $1,550
Year 4 = $2,290
(a) If the discount rate is 6 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:
To solve this problem, we must find the FV of each cash flow and add them. To find the FV of a lump sum, we use:
= $6737.51
(b) If the discount rate is 14 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:
= $7415.17
(c) If the discount rate is 21 percent, then the future value of these cash flows in Year 4:
= $8061.47
Answer:
5.31%
Explanation:
FV = 1000
Coupon rate = 5.7%
No of compound = 2
Interest per period = $28.5
Bond price = $1048
No of years to maturity = 20
No of compounding till maturity = 40
Coupon rate set on new bonds = Rate(Nper, PMT, -PV, FV) * 2
Coupon rate set on new bonds = Rate(40, 28.5, -1048, 1000) * 2
Coupon rate set on new bonds = 0.02655 * 2
Coupon rate set on new bonds = 0.0531
Coupon rate set on new bonds = 5.31%
