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bulgar [2K]
3 years ago
12

Through (4,-4) parallel to y=3

Mathematics
1 answer:
antoniya [11.8K]3 years ago
5 0
Answer:
y = -4

Explanation:
The graph of y = 3 is horizontal.

The slope must be 0 for a line to be horizontal, and thus parallel to y=3.

In slope-intercept form (y = mx + b), “m” is the slope, “b” is the y-intercept.
When the slope, m = 0, the equation becomes y = b.

Point (4,-4) is written (x, y).
y = -4

Since y = b, b = -4.

Therefore, the equation is y = -4.
You might be interested in
What is the answer to -3(9-x)+6x
marin [14]

Answer: 9−27

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
In a particular faculty 60% of students are men and 40% are women. In a random sample of 50 students what is the probability tha
zimovet [89]

Answer:

a) The expected value is given by:

E(X) = np = 50*0.4 = 20

and the variance is given by:

Var(X) =np(1-p) = 50*0.4*(1-0.4) = 12

b) P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)

And we can find this probability with the following Excel code:

=1-BINOM.DIST(25,50,0.4,TRUE)

And we got:

P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)=0.0573

c) 1) Random sample (assumed)

2) np= 50*0.4= 20 >10

n(1-p) =50*0.6= 30>10

3) Independence (assumed)

Since the 3 conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation:

X \sim N(\mu = 20 , \sigma= 3.464)

d) P(X>25) = 1-P(Z< \frac{25-20}{3.464}) = 1-P(z

e) P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)

P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)= 1-P(Z

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=50, p=0.4)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Part a

The expected value is given by:

E(X) = np = 50*0.4 = 20

and the variance is given by:

Var(X) =np(1-p) = 50*0.4*(1-0.4) = 12

Part b

For this case we want to find this probability:

P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)

And we can find this probability with the following Excel code:

=1-BINOM.DIST(25,50,0.4,TRUE)

And we got:

P(X>25)= 1-P(X\leq 25)=0.0573

Part c

1) Random sample (assumed)

2) np= 50*0.4= 20 >10

n(1-p) =50*0.6= 30>10

3) Independence (assumed)

Since the 3 conditions are satisfied we can use the normal approximation:

X \sim N(\mu = 20 , \sigma= 3.464)

Part d

We want this probability:

P(X>25) = 1-P(Z< \frac{25-20}{3.464}) = 1-P(z

Part e

For this case we use the continuity correction and we have this:

P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)

P(X>25)= P(X>25.5) = 1-P(X \leq 25.5)= 1-P(Z

4 0
3 years ago
Michael jogs at 3 miles per hour and Jack runs at 4.5 miles per hour. If Michael starts at 2:00 pm and Jack starts on the same c
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

It will take Jack 40 minutes to cover the same distance which Micheal covers in 60 minutes. Both will meet at 3 miles distance at 3 pm.

Step-by-step explanation:

Micheal  runs 3 miles in one hour or 60 minutes.

In one minute he runs 3/60= 1/20  or 0.05miles.

Jack runs 4.5 miles in one hour or 60 minutes.

In one minute he runs 4.5/60= 45/600= 9/120= 3/40  or 0.075 miles.

So Jack is 0.075/0.05 = 1.5 times faster than Micheal.

or Micheal is 1.5 times slower than Jack.

Jack starts from 2:20 pm and at 3 pm he will run 0.075(40 minutes)= 3miles

Micheal start at 2:00 pm and at 3 pm he will run 0.05(60 minutes)= 3 miles

So at 3 pm both will have covered equal distance= 3miles.

It will take Jack 40 minutes to cover the same distance which Micheal covers in 60 minutes. Both will meet at 3 miles distance at 3 pm.

3 0
3 years ago
I need some help plz!!!
jek_recluse [69]
1.04 kilograms

1 gram = .001 kilogram
2x520= 1040
1040 x .001 = 1.04 kilograms
5 0
3 years ago
Would it be 1/5 ?? i'm not sure how to do probability
Sidana [21]

Answer:

Choice A

Step-by-step explanation:

5 red socks, 2 white socks, 3 blue socks = 10 socks


1 st sock red : 5 / 10

2nd sock red : 4/9

we didn't put the sock back

a pair of red socks

5/10 * 4/9 = 20/90 = 2/9



8 0
3 years ago
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