Hey there,
One way I know is to list all the mutiples between 30 and 42. If there is more than one multipl then keep searching until you find theone that is less than the others and there's none left but that one multiple which is the LCM of 30 and 42.
Hope that helps!!
Answer:
Hello,
356
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
= 0.32
Step-by-step explanation:
Exactly $2000 final winnings is possible only in <em>one of the following two cases</em>:
1)
<em>The chosen card is marked $1000 and then red chip is selected.</em> Because red chip doubles contestant's $1000 base amount, and makes it $2000.
- Since two cards of the five cards are marked $1000, the probability of choosing $1000 marked card is
- Since three of five chips is red, the probability of choosing red chips is
Then the probability of both choosing $1000 marked card and red chip is:
× =
2)
<em>The chosen card is marked $2000 and then white chip is selected.</em> Because white chip makes the contestant's final winning remain the same as base amount, which is $2000
- Since one card of the five cards are marked $2000, the probability of choosing $2000 marked card is
- Since two of five chips is white, the probability of choosing red chips is
Then the probability of both choosing $2000 marked card and white chip is:
× =
The probability that a contestant's final winning is the sum of probabilities of these two cases:
× = = 0.32
1/5 plus 70% mins 100%
Do you know what 1/5 is as a percentage
D.
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