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3 years ago

HOw dO I rUn??????????????????????????????????????????????

Mathematics

2 answers:

Semmy [17]3 years ago

7 0

How do you run???????

ZanzabumX [31]3 years ago

7 0

It's like walking but faster, so you go faster like sonic lol.

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What function is an example of exponential growth

Artist 52 [7]

Exponential growth functions are the functions that normally take the form
y=ab^x
where:
a=initial value
b=growth rate
x=time
An example of situation that takes this form is the population growth of a particular group say and organism.

5 0

3 years ago

Given that p= x-y <br> Find p when :<br> X=-12. And y=-19<br><br> What is p?

Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

p=7

Step-by-step explanation:

p=-12-(-19)

p=-12+19

p=7

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Write each of the following products in standard polynomial form. (a) (x+3)(x-2)(x-8) (b) (x+2)(x-2)(x+3)(x-3)

Grace [21]

Each of the following products

6 0

4 years ago

According to the manufacturer of the candy Skittles, 20% of the candy produced are red. If we take a random sample of 100 bags o

igomit [66]

Answer:

Probability that the proportion in our sample of red candies will be less than 20% is 0.5 .

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that 20% of the candy produced are red. A random sample of 100 bags of Skittles is taken.

The distribution we can use here is;

$\frac{\hat p - p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p (1- \hat p)}{n} } }$ ~ N(0,1)

where, p = 0.20 and n = 100

Let $\hat p$ = proportion of red candies in our sample

So, P( $\hat p$ < 0.20) = P( $\frac{\hat p - p}{\sqrt{\frac{\hat p (1- \hat p)}{n} } }$ < $\frac{0.20 - 0.20}{\sqrt{\frac{0.2 (1- 0.2)}{100} } }$ ) = P(Z < 0) = 0.5

Therefore, probability that the proportion in our sample of red candies will be less than 20% is 0.5 .

5 0

3 years ago

The variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :

aliina [53]

Answer: d. np(1 - p).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be any binomial variable which represents the number of success such that $X\sim B(n, p)$ , where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Then, the mean E(x) and the variance Var(x) for the binomial distribution is given by equation :

$E(x)=\mu=np$

$Var (x)=\sigma^2=np(1-p)$

where n is the sample size or the total number of trials and p is the probability of getting success in each trial .

Therefore , the correct option is option d. np(1 - p) .

6 0

3 years ago