Answer:
The correct option is A,bonds Payable credit, $40,000
Explanation:
Overvaluation of bonds by $40,000 means that the carrying value of the bond was $40,000 more than its true worth,an adjustment needs to be passed in the bonds payable account by a way of debit in order to bring the bonds payable to its true value.
Debit entry is required in the bonds payable account because the account itself is a liability account that naturally has a credit balance,in order to reduce the balance, a debit of $40,000 is needed not a credit of $40,000 as shown by option A
Answer:
list pros such as home proximity and job area.
brainliest?
Answer:
10%
Explanation:
Cost of preferred capital=dividend per share/Par value of preferred capital
=$2/$20=10%
We take issue price of preferred stock for the sake of working cost of capital.
Answer:
$500,000 of notes payable as short-term and $3,500,000 as long-term obligations.
Explanation:
Short term liabilities are those liabilities which need to be paid within one year time and Long term liabilities are those liabilities which need to be paid after one year time.
In this question $4,000,000 of note payable with refinancing of $3,500,000 in following month after year end which means that the a payment of $500,000 ($4,000,000 - $3,500,000) is required in the following months. So, $50,000 will be short term liability and renewed fiance of $3,500,000 long term liability.
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