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denpristay [2]
3 years ago
15

Sixty is 20 percent more than what number?

Mathematics
2 answers:
melamori03 [73]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

48

Step-by-step explanation:

20 percent off of 60 is 48

blsea [12.9K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:The answer is 48

Step-by-step explanation:

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Pls answer fast i need help
juin [17]

Do it by your self  ok ???

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Show that if X is a geometric random variable with parameter p, then
Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}=-\frac{p ln p}{1-p}

Step-by-step explanation:

The geometric distribution represents "the number of failures before you get a success in a series of Bernoulli trials. This discrete probability distribution is represented by the probability density function:"

P(X=x)=(1-p)^{x-1} p

Let X the random variable that measures the number os trials until the first success, we know that X follows this distribution:

X\sim Geo (1-p)

In order to find the expected value E(1/X) we need to find this sum:

E(X)=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}

Lets consider the following series:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} b^{k-1}

And let's assume that this series is a power series with b a number between (0,1). If we apply integration of this series we have this:

\int_{0}^b \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} r^{k-1}=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \int_{0}^b r^{k-1} dt=\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{b^k}{k}   (a)

On the last step we assume that 0\leq r\leq b and \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} r^{k-1}=\frac{1}{1-r}, then the integral on the left part of equation (a) would be 1. And we have:

\int_{0}^b \frac{1}{1-r}dr=-ln(1-b)

And for the next step we have:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{b^{k-1}}{k}=\frac{1}{b}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{b^k}{k}=-\frac{ln(1-b)}{b}

And with this we have the requiered proof.

And since b=1-p we have that:

\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{p(1-p)^{k-1}}{k}=-\frac{p ln p}{1-p}

4 0
4 years ago
Please help me if you can. Sorry if it’s blurry
jarptica [38.1K]

Step-by-step explanation:

oh, come on, just multiplication.

7.5×10⁴ years is 7.5×10000 =75000 years.

0.005 inches per year for 75000 years means

0.005 × 75000 = 5 × 75 = 375 inches.

7 0
3 years ago
Help me ASAP plssssssssssssssss
marishachu [46]

Answer: it’s B

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can someone pls show how to do this is with explanation
Keith_Richards [23]
1m = 100 cm
0.05 m = 5cm
1 km = 10000 cm
0.00005 km = 5 cm
Yes they are equal

(Mark me the brainliest if this has helped!)
4 0
3 years ago
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