Not 100% sure but they should equal 22 because they are across from each other they would be the same answer so you set it equal to each other and solve for the answer
You can either use the inverse function theorem or compute the general derivative using implicit differentiation. The first method is slightly faster.
The IFT goes like this: if f(x) is invertible and f(a) = b, then finv(b) = a (where "finv" means "inverse of f").
By definition of inverse functions, we have
f(finv(x)) = finv(f(x)) = x
Differentiating both sides of the second equality with respect to x using the chain rule gives
finv'(f(x)) * f'(x) = 1
When x = a, we get
finv'(b) * f'(a) = 1
or
finv'(b) = 1/f'(a)
Now let f(x) = sin(x), which is invertible over the interval -π/2 ≤ x ≤ π/2. In the interval, we have sin(x) = √3/2 when x = π/3. We also have f'(x) = cos(x).
So we take a = π/3 and b = √3/2. Then
arcsin'(√3/2) = 1/cos(π/3) = 1/(1/2) = 2
I am not sure what the answer is