Answer:
If k = −1 then the system has no solutions.
If k = 2 then the system has infinitely many solutions.
The system cannot have unique solution.
Step-by-step explanation:
We have the following system of equations
The augmented matrix is
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\1&1&1&k\\2&-1&4&k^2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C1%261%261%26k%5C%5C2%26-1%264%26k%5E2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
The reduction of this matrix to row-echelon form is outlined below.
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\2&-1&4&k^2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k-2%5C%5C2%26-1%264%26k%5E2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\0&3&-2&k^2-4\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k-2%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k%5E2-4%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
![\left[\begin{array}{cccc}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&k-2\\0&0&0&k^2-k-2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bcccc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26k-2%5C%5C0%260%260%26k%5E2-k-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
The last row determines, if there are solutions or not. To be consistent, we must have k such that
Case k = −1:
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&-1-2\\0&0&0&(-1)^2-(-1)-2\end{array}\right] \rightarrow \left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&-3\\0&0&0&-2\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26-1-2%5C%5C0%260%260%26%28-1%29%5E2-%28-1%29-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5Crightarrow%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%26-3%5C%5C0%260%260%26-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
If k = −1 then the last equation becomes 0 = −2 which is impossible.Therefore, the system has no solutions.
Case k = 2:
![\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&2-2\\0&0&0&(2)^2-(2)-2\end{array}\right] \rightarrow \left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}1&-2&3&2\\0&3&-2&0\\0&0&0&0\end{array}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%262-2%5C%5C0%260%260%26%282%29%5E2-%282%29-2%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D%20%5Crightarrow%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cbegin%7Barray%7D%7Bccc%7Cc%7D1%26-2%263%262%5C%5C0%263%26-2%260%5C%5C0%260%260%260%5Cend%7Barray%7D%5Cright%5D)
This gives the infinite many solution.
Answer:
20.94021
Step-by-step explanation:
mark me brainlist
A rational number is any number that can be expressed as a fraction
(ex: -5/2, 4 1/7, and 8/13)
An irrational number is any number that cannot be expressed as a fraction; a non-repeating, non-terminating decimal (ex: pi, 0.121231234...)
Hope this helps! :)
The key is Esther travelled the same distance - x - in both her morning and evening commute.
45(time she took in the morning, or p) = x
30(time she took in the evening, or q) = x
Therefore 45(p) = 30(q), or divide both sides by 5 and get 9(p) = 6(q). I know you can divide it further, but these numbers are small enough and it's not worth the time.
Since the whole trip took an hour, (p + q) = 60min, and so, p = 60-q.
Therefore 9(60-q) = 6q or 540-9q = 6q. So 540 = 15q, which makes q = 36. If q = 36, then by (p+q)=60, p (the time she took in the morning) must equal 24.
45 miles per hour, her speed in the morning, times (24/60) hours, her time, makes 18 miles travelled in the morning. If you check, 30 miles per hour times (36/60) hours also makes 18 miles in the evening.
<span>Hope that makes a little sense. And I also hope it's right</span>
Answer:
so far i got 8 quarters 14 dimes and 13 pennies
Step-by-step explanation:
ill update you if i got any closer
