three-fourths minus x = one half
so x equals one-fourth
it will be like this
3 1
-- - x = --
4 2
and i think you gonna have to do keep,change,flip so bascially flip 1/2 then after you multiple and that's how it equaals 1 one-fourth
hope this helps!
Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.
For each household, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it has at least one VCR, or it does not. The probability of a household having at least one VCR is independent of any other household, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
In this problem:
- 14 households, hence
. - 0.535 probability of having at least one VCR, hence
.
The probability of <u>at least 6 and no more than 8</u> is:

In which:




Then:

0.5601 = 56.01% probability that the number having at least one VCR is no more than 8 but at least 6.00.
A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/24863377
Here's the answer. 1/3 × 31= 10.333
Answer:
ill take the other half :>
Step-by-step explanation:
If you would like to order the following numbers from least to greatest, you can do this using the following steps:
<span>- 40, 1250, - 6.44, 0.2
</span>- 40 < - 6.44 < 0.2 < 1250
The correct result would be <span>- 40 < - 6.44 < 0.2 < 1250.</span>