52/8 = 6
6*8 = 48
52-48 = 4
So 52 = 6*8+4
The quotient is 6, the remainder is 4.
6 1/12 would be the answer
Rewriting our equation with parts separated
1/3+5+3/4
Solving the fraction parts
1/3+3/4=?
Find the LCD of 1/3 and 3/4 and rewrite to solve with the equivalent fractions.
LCD = 12
4/12+9/12=13/12
Simplifying the fraction part, 13/12,
13/12=11/12
Combining the whole and fraction parts
5+1+1/12=6 1/12
Answer:
0.0903
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that :
The mean = 1450
The standard deviation = 220
sample mean = 1560



P(X> 1560) = P(Z > 0.5)
P(X> 1560) = 1 - P(Z < 0.5)
From the z tables;
P(X> 1560) = 1 - 0.6915
P(X> 1560) = 0.3085
Let consider the given number of weeks = 52
Mean
= np = 52 × 0.3085 = 16.042
The standard deviation =
The standard deviation = 
The standard deviation = 3.3306
Let Y be a random variable that proceeds in a binomial distribution, which denotes the number of weeks in a year that exceeds $1560.
Then;
Pr ( Y > 20) = P( z > 20)


From z tables
P(Y > 20)
0.0903
Answer:
-1.1, 6.1
Step-by-step explanation:
-2X^2+10X+14=0
(-2X^2+10X+14)/-2=0
X^2-5X-7=0
Then use the quadratic formula because you can't factor
Fill in the equations and solve. One should have the plus and the other should have the minus and that's how you get the 2 different answers.
A=1
B=-5
C=-7