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guajiro [1.7K]
3 years ago
13

Use the Squeeze Theorem ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
Mkey [24]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

See Below.

Step-by-step explanation:

We want to use the Squeeze Theorem to show that:

\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}\left(x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\right)=0

Recall that according to the Squeeze Theorem, if:

\displaystyle g(x)\leq f(x) \leq h(x)

And:

\displaystyle \lim_{x\to c}g(x)  =\lim_{x\to c}h(x) = L

Then:

\displaystyle \lim_{x\to c}f(x)=L

Recall that the value of sine is always ≥ -1 and ≤ 1. Hence:

\displaystyle -1 \leq \sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right) \leq 1

We can multiply both sides by <em>x</em>². Since this value is always positive, we do not need to change the signs. Hence:

\displaystyle -x^2\leq x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)\leq x^2

Let <em>g</em> = -<em>x</em>², <em>h</em> = <em>x</em>², and <em>f</em> = <em>x</em>²sin(2 / x). We can see that:

\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}g(x) = \lim_{ x \to 0}h(x) = 0

And since g(x) ≤ f(x) ≤ h(x), we can conclude using the Squeeze Theorem that:

\displaystyle \lim_{x \to 0}f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0}x^2\sin\left(\frac{2}{x}\right)=0

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