A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows.
for better understanding lets explain what conventional peg means
- conventional peg as related to when country formally (de jure) pinpoint their own currency at a fixed rate to the currency of another said country example is, from the currencies of major trading or financial partners and weights showing on the distribution of trade in different geographical zones
- The known backbone or anchor currency or basket weights are public or notified to the IMF and a country authorities are able to maintain the fixed parity through direct intervention
From the above, we can therefore say that the answer A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows is correct.
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Answer:
Segregation of duties.
Explanation:
Segregation of duties -
The concept of segregation of duties is based on the shared responsibilities .
It refers to the method of assigning different person for different task , is referred to as segregation of duties .
It is the fundamental building block for running a business efficiently , in order to reduce any management risk .
In the business it is the major case of any fraud or error , as one person is responsible for maximum duties functioning in the business .
Therefore , it is import to divide various duties .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question,
The correct answer is segregation of duties .
Answer:
612,936 shares
Explanation:
The computation of the number of shares of stock must be sold is shown below:
Before that we have to compute
Required sales proceeds net of spread is
= (Raise amount + estimated cost for legal and accounting fees) ÷ (1 - spread rate)
= ($14.9 million + $582,000) ÷ (1 - 0.0815)
= ($1,5482,000) ÷ (1 - 0.0815)
= $16,855,743.06
So, shares to be sold is
= $16,855,743.06 ÷ $27.50
= 612,936 shares
Answer:
Classification is the process of dividing the members of a population into smaller groups, so that in each group, members with similar characteristics are placed. The post-classification process continues at the macro level, and each subgroup is subdivided into smaller subdivisions, which can also be subdivided into smaller subdivisions. If necessary, each category is divided into sections. Each of these steps is called a division level , i hope it i can not help you
Explanation:
Political business risks can negatively affect the profitability of a company or investment in a particular country or location, these risks are inherent in political crises that affect the economy of a location, so it is necessary for managers to assess political risk using analysis indices of risk, assessment systems, past results, country positioning and it is also essential that managers seek experts for better guidance on political risks.
Brazil, for example, is a country that despite attracting a lot of international investment through government incentives, is going through an internal political crisis that gives it greater instability and causes instability so that investors feel safe in investing in the country, due to the possibility of rapid change in the political scenario that can lead to negative economic changes and unforeseen events that mean negative risks for foreign investors.
