Answer:
A) It is subtracted from the Bonds Payable balance and shown with long-term liabilities on the balance sheet
Explanation:
The discount on Bonds payable, as their name implies, decrease the Bonds Payable carrying value. A bond with discounts, was issued at a lower price than his face value. The discount on bonds represent that difference.
It takes amortization while the time past, until at maturity, their balance is zero, to represent the reality, the obligation for the company is for the face value, so the carrying value of bonds payable should equal the face value.
Last, because the bonds are due in ten-year their place is the long-term liabilities. As their obligation are not within the 12 month period to qualify as short-term
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
C(x) = 0.06x^2 - 6x + 218
Its a quadratic function , minima would occur at vertex.
x is no. of digital cameras
x = -b/2a = -(-6/2*0.06) = 50 cameras
Minimum marginal cost : C(50) = 0.06(50)^2 - 6*50 + 218 = $ 68
Answer:
He must have a skratta du flörlar du in his album cover
Explanation:
You laugh, you lose
Answer:
a differentiation advantage
Explanation:
This scenario best illustrates a differentiation advantage. This is basically when a company is able to offer a product that, despite being the same as the competitor's product, is slightly different or offers something that the competitors do not. This small difference is what attracts the customers and increases profits. In this case, Fashion Mart Corp is differentiating their product by providing a guarantee of quality, which the competitors offering similar products cannot offer.
Answer:
Since Interest Rate and Period is not given; we would assume the spring term begins in 4 months and
Explanation:
First we will require to use the compound interest formula.
It is not mentioned the compounding period in the question. However, many of the bank accounts today offer monthly compounding, and this will be used as the basis.
i=interest rate=7.62% p.a => 7.62/12=0.635% per month
FV=PV(1+i)^n
FV=future value = 2200
PV=present value, to be found
i=interest rate per compounding period (month)=0.00635
n=number of periods=4
2200=PV(1+0.00635)^4
PV=2200/(1.00635^4)
PV=$2144.99
In case interest is not compounded, we could apply the simple interest formula:
FV=PV(1+ni)
PV=2200/(1+4*0.00635)
PV=$2145.504
