Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
-4x + 1 = -4x + 1
1 = 1
infinitely many solutions
To answer this question you will find the means and the mean absolute deviations and compare them.
The correct answers are
A and C.
Please see the attached picture for the organized work.
Answer:
Hi! I think I got the answer, it is a tricky one! The answer I got was C) 1029.
Step-by-step explanation:
1. It is good to first know that 40%more means 1.4 (some number). So, if n is 40% more than the sum of the other three numbers: n= 1.4* (<em>l +m+p)</em> .
2. Also note that: <em>n+l+m+p= </em>1764; so, <em>n = 1764-l-m-p.</em>
3. Since we have two expressions for n, we can equate them to each other. Giving, 1.4* (<em>l +m+p) =1764-l-m-p . </em>Simplifying we get 2.4 (<em>l +m+p)</em>=1764.
4. <em>l +m+p =1764/2=735.</em>
5. 1764-735=1029
Hope that helps! Feel free to message back if there are any questions!
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Answer:B.) 1.74%
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
1 and ahalf, so 1 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
