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saveliy_v [14]
3 years ago
9

Can someone help me with this problem ?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Flura [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

83

Step-by-step explanation:

You would subtract 5 from 88 to get Anjali's current age which is 83.

Alecsey [184]3 years ago
5 0

The answer is 83. 83+5=88. just subtract it.

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If the circle radius is 27yd, how do I find the circumference without using pi?
lions [1.4K]

Circumference of a circle having radius of 27 yard can be found using the formula, π = 2(Area of Circle)/r, which is C = 169.6 yd

<h3>What is the Circumference of a Circle?</h3>
  • Circumference of a circle is the distance round the circle.
  • Circumference = Perimeter
  • Circumference of a circle without using π = 2(Area of Circle)/r.

Given:

radius of circle = 27 yd

Thus:

Area = πr² = π(27)²

Area = 2,290.2 yd²

Circumference of a circle without using π = 2(2,290.2)/27

= 169.6 yd.

Learn more about Circumference of a Circle on:

brainly.com/question/16703642

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do you change 0.16666 in a fraction
Natasha_Volkova [10]
Here's how to convert 0.16666 to a fraction...

There is not much that can be done to figure out how to write 0.16666 as a fraction, except to literally use what the decimal portion of your number, the .16666, means.

Since there are 5 digits in 16666, the very last digit is the "100000th" decimal place.

So we can just say that .16666 is the same as 16666/100000.

The fraction 16666/100000 is not reduced to lowest terms. We can reduce this fraction to lowest
terms by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 2.

Why divide by 2? 2 is the Greatest Common Divisor (GCD)
or Greatest Common Factor (GCF) of the numbers 16666 and 100000.
So, this fraction reduced to lowest terms is 8333/50000

So your final answer is: 0.16666 can be written as the fraction 8333/50000

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is 1/2+p=-3 i need help
son4ous [18]

Answr:

p=−7/2

Step-by-step explanation:

Simplify both sides of the equation.

p+

1

2

=−3

Step 2: Subtract 1/2 from both sides.

p+

1

2

−

1

2

=−3−

1

2

p=

−7

2

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Captain Ben has a ship, the H.M.S Crimson Lynx. The ship is five furlongs from the dread pirate Luis and his merciless band of t
grigory [225]

Answer:

We can see that this is dependent probability. We can find dependent probability of happening event A then event B by multiplying probability of event A by probability of event B given that event A already happened.

Step-by-step explanation:

In our case event A is pirate hitting captain's ship and event B is captain missing pirate's ship. We have been given that pirate shoots first so pirate's ship can't be hit before pirate shoots his cannons. So probability of hitting captain's ship is 1/3. We have been given that if Captain Ben's ship is already hit then Captain Ben will always miss. So the probability of Captain missing the dread pirate's ship given the pirate Luis hitting the Captain ship is 1. Now to find probability that pirate hits Captain, but Captain misses we will multiply our both probabilities.

8 0
3 years ago
3*(2)=6+5 3*(2+5)<br> Please help
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

6 = 413 is a not true statement

Step-by-step explanation:

I've attached my work below

Hope it helps, Let me know if you have any questions/concerns !

Have a nice rest of your day :)

4 0
3 years ago
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