Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
a) since acceleration can be expressed as a(t) = dv/dt
We use the chosen rule to obtain
dv/dt = dv/dx * dx/dt = v* dv/dx
We can now set v dv/dx = -kv^2
Taking v from both sides
dv/dx = -kv
Dv/v = -kdx
In (v)= kx+ c
V= e^kx+c
From v (o) = 150
V = 150e^kx
When distance x= 2000ft convert to miles gives 0.378788 mi then velocity v = 15 mi/he
15= 150. e ^ 0.378788k
Lm (o.t) = -0.378788k
K= 6.0788mi
C) we return to dv/dt = -kv^2 = dv/v^2 = -k dt
-1/v = -kt +c
From v(o) = 150, we get - 1/150= c and
1/v - 1/150= kt
We know v= 15mi/hr and k = 6.0788
1/15 - 1/150 = 6.0788t
T = 9.8704.10^-3hr.
Answer:
17
Step-by-step explanation:
I would just solve them individually for 3 and then add them together. f(x)=6(3)+3 = 21 and g(x)= 3-7= -4
(f+g)(3) = 21-4= 17
Answer: No
Explanation: Current is measured in amps.
Answer:
.
Step-by-step explanation:
All coterminal angles of an angle
are defined as
or 
where, n is an integer.
The given angle is

So, all coterminal angles of an angle
are

For n=1,




Since,
between 0 and 2π, therefore, the required coterminal angle is
.