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bulgar [2K]
3 years ago
5

My question is this can you help me​

Mathematics
1 answer:
jok3333 [9.3K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

It's 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

It's closer to 0 than the other fractions

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Luba_88 [7]

As per the given question, the expression of the function f(x) is as:

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Now, as per the definition of zeros, the zero is that value of x which when plugged into the function should make the function zero (it is also called "making the function vanish"). <u>In our case, plugging in "zero values" of x should make the numerator zero without making the denominator zero.</u> Now, if we plug in the given values of x, which are x=-1, x=2 and x=4 in the function we see that the <u>numerator does not become a zero but the denominator does</u>.

Thus, x=-1, x=2 and x=4 are not the zeros of the function and therefore, Sue is wrong. However, we do have discontinuities at the aforementioned values of x because the denominator becomes a zero at those points and as per the definition of a discontinuity the denominator should be a zero at that point. Therefore, Ed is correct.

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