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nadezda [96]
3 years ago
10

A loss contingency can be accrued when it is certain that funds are available to settle the disputed amount. the amount of the l

oss can be reasonably estimated and it is probable that an asset has been impaired or a liability has been incurred. it is probable that an asset has been impaired or a liability incurred even though the amount of the loss cannot be reasonably estimated. an asset may have been impaired.
Business
1 answer:
BlackZzzverrR [31]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: The amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated and it is probable that an asset has been impaired or a liability has been incurred.

Explanation:

A loss contingent is an expense that is based on a future event for instance, if the company loses a law suit and would have to pay settlement costs.

Loss contingents are only permitted to be accrued if the probability that they will happen is likely and even at that, the amount of loss needs to be capable of being reasonably estimated. This way, a proper estimate can be made that will represent the situation adequately.

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How do you determine the acid-test ratio? The sum of cash and short-term investments divided by short-term debt. Current assets
Alex Ar [27]

Answer: The sum of cash, short-term investments and net receivables divided by current liabilities

Explanation: The acid test ratio, also known as the quick ratio, is a liquidity ratio that is used to determine the ability of a company to pay its current liabilities if it rises immediately. It is considered to be more stringent ratio than the current ratio.

It is concluded by dividing those current assets that can be converted into cash immediately with the current liabilities of the company.

Therefore, from the above we can conclude that the correct statement is D.

3 0
3 years ago
Confirm that you can find the financial statements for Starbucks Corporation​ (SBUX) as of Sep​ 28, 2014 using the following​ so
Ksenya-84 [330]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

from the company web page

7 0
3 years ago
To help finance a major expansion, Top Fashion Company sold a noncallable bond several years ago that now has 20 years to maturi
Basile [38]

Answer:

4.51%

Explanation:

First, find the yield to maturity(YTM) of the bond; this would be the pretax cost of debt.

Using a financial calculator, input the following;

Face value of the bond ; FV = 1000

Semiannual coupon payment; PMT = (8%/2)*1000 = 40

Present value of bond; PV = -1050

Time to maturity; N = 20*2 = 40 semiannual payments

then compute semi-annual interest rate ; CPT I/Y = 3.756%

The pretax cost of debt = 3.756% *2 = 7.51%

After tax-cost of debt is used for WACC calculation and is therefore as follows;

7.51%(1-0.40) = 4.51%

3 0
3 years ago
Poe Co. had 300,000 shares of common stock issued and outstanding at December 31, Year 1. No common stock was issued during Year
Evgen [1.6K]

Answer:

Poe's Year 2 Basic Earnings per share = $0.9

Explanation:

Provided Year 2 Net income = $330,000

Cash dividend paid to preference shares = $60,000

Net earnings available for equity = $330,000 - $60,000 = $270,000

Now outstanding common equity = 300,000 shares

Earnings per share = $270,000/300,000 = $0.9 per share

Note: Dividend paid to common stock is also earnings of common stock, that is dividend is part of common stock.

Therefore dividend paid to common stock will not be deducted and preference shares are paid in priority to equity, therefore dividend to preference is deducted to get the value of earnings available for equity.

Final Answer

Poe's Year 2 Basic Earnings per share = $0.9

4 0
3 years ago
Choose the correct option in the blank area. When you keep someones personal information confidential, you are A. Being courteou
Zina [86]

Answer:

c

Explanation:

means you can be trusted with other people's information

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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