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devlian [24]
3 years ago
7

HELP!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! EXPLAIN TOO PLZ!

Mathematics
2 answers:
user100 [1]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:B) \frac{14}{95}

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: list down the probability of the marbles,

you will get the probability

of \frac{3}{5} for the blue marbles and \frac{2}{5} for the red ones .

Step 2: <em>Forget</em><em> about the blue marbles and  focus on the red marbles </em>

On the first pick of marbles  the probability of getting a red marble is \frac{2}{5} but then you didn't replace the marble so now you have only 19 marbles as your total.

Step 3: lets say you picked  a red marble on the first pick now you only have 7 red marbles out of 19 marbles (minus the red marble you picked -> step 2)

so the probability of getting a red marble on the second pick is \frac{7}{19}

Step 4: multiply the probabilities of both the first and second pick

it will look like this

\frac{2}{5}  × \frac{7}{19}

  ^                                              ^

first pick                                 second pick

Note : You will only minus your probability and number of "marbles "( in this case ) if the question says "without replacing "

final answer : \frac{14}{95}

 

asambeis [7]3 years ago
7 0

Ok so you would just take the two fractions and simply if needed and that the answer!

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The appropiate distribution to us in this model is the binomial distribution, as there is a sample size of n=25 "trials" with probability p=0.25 of success.

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