Answer:
tan(x) = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
I find the least tedious way to answer questions like this is to use a graphing calculator to graph a function that is zero for the desired x. We can write that function by subtracting csc(x) from both sides of the equation:
0 = sin(x)tan(x) +cos(x) -csc(x)
The graph shows a solution to be x=π/4, corresponding to 45°. The values of the trig functions for this angle are ...
- sin(π/4) = (√2)/2
- cos(π/4) = (√2)/2
- tan(π/4) = 1
- csc(π/4) = √2
_____
An algebraic solution might go like this.
1/sin(x) = sin(x)·tan(x) +cos(x)
Multiplying by sin(x), we get ...
1 = tan(x)·sin(x)^2 + sin(x)cos(x)
Substituting for sin(x)^2, this is
1 = tan(x)(1 -cos(x)^2) +sin(x)cos(x)
1 = tan(x) - (sin(x)/cos(x))·cos(x)^2 +sin(x)cos(x) . . . using tan(x) = sin(x)/cos(x)
1 = tan(x)
Answer:
<BOC = 100*
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Rice: 3 x 10^-2 = 0.03 grams
Salt: 6 x 10^-5 = 6e-5 grams
Here is the completed table:
Hours Weeks
168 1
1008 6
840 5
<h3>How to complete the table? </h3>
The mathematical operation that would be used to determine the missing values are division and multiplication. In order to convert hours to weeks, divide by 168 hours. To convert weeks to hours, multiply by 168.
1008 hours to weeks = 1008 / 168 = 6 weeks
5 weeks to hours = 5 x 168 = 840 hours
To learn more about division, please check: brainly.com/question/194007
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A. Determine the possible amount of money gail could have