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Paha777 [63]
3 years ago
8

What fraction is equal to 3?

Mathematics
1 answer:
defon3 years ago
8 0
3/1 6/2 9/3 12/4 etc
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17.5 how to make this into a fraction
BARSIC [14]
Take the .5 of the 17.5 and convert it to a fractin.
we know .5 is equal to 50% or 1/2 

now we have a mixed number  17 \frac{1}{2}

in order to convert it into an improper fraction you need to multiply the whole number by the denominator and then add the numerator all while keeping the denominator constant. 

W \frac{N}{D} =  \frac{(W*D)+N}{D}

so 17 \frac{1}{2}= \frac{(17*2)+1}{2}= \frac{35}{2}



5 0
3 years ago
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Angle E has what measurement according to the protractor?
Cloud [144]
Angle E is from A to E

see, the 0 is on the right

from 0 to 120, look at inner arc

answer si 120 degres
3 0
3 years ago
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Manufacturers are testing a die to make sure that it is fair (has a uniform distribution). They roll the die 66 times and record
steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

We should reject H0

At the 5% significance level, there is sufficient evidence to conclude that the die is not fair.

Step-by-step explanation:

Null hypothesis is a statement that is to be tested against the alternative hypothesis and then decision is taken whether to accept or reject the null hypothesis. The critical value is 15.091 and  test statistic is 11.070. The null hypothesis is rejected or accepted on the basis of level of significance. When the p-value Test statistics is greater than level of significance we fail to reject the null hypothesis and null hypothesis is then accepted. In the given case p-value is less than critical value then we should reject the null hypothesis.

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose the odds against winning the lottery as 48,000,000 to 1. What is the probability of the event of winning the lottery giv
kupik [55]

The probability according to the given scenario will be "\frac{1}{48,000,001}".

According to the question:

  • The odds against winning the lottery are 48,000,000 to 1.
  • Favorable outcome = 1

→ The total outcome will be:

= 48,000,000 +1

= 48,000,001

As we know,

→ P(E) = \frac{Favorable \ outcomes}{Total \ outcomes}

By putting the values, we get

→           =\frac{1}{48,000,001}

Thus the above response is right.

Learn more about Probability here:

brainly.com/question/15739211

8 0
2 years ago
HELP ASP PLZ!!!
zheka24 [161]

Answer:

I wanna say that,

Time to Climb (min) <u>Dependent Variable</u>

Height (ft<u>)</u> <u>Independent Variable</u>

Hope this helps, let me know if I'm wrong.

<u></u>

7 0
3 years ago
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