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fenix001 [56]
3 years ago
11

g If there is a breach of contract, the objective of the remedy in the breach contract case will be to: Question 21 options: pla

ce the parties back into the position that they would have been in had there been no contract punish the party that committed breach of contract provide both parties relief place the non breaching party into the position that they would have been had the contract not been breached
Business
1 answer:
Scrat [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: place the non breaching party into the position that they would have been had the contract not been breached

Explanation:

A contract is meant to satisfy the reasons for which the contract was gone into for both parties. If one party breaches the contract, the party that did not breach should still have their reason for entering the contract satisfied because they did what they were supposed to do according to the contract.

This is why the purpose of a breach of contract remedy is to ensure that this non-breaching party does indeed get what was supposed to come to them by the contract.

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As not everybody can afford designer items, those who can, typically buy such items to increase their self-esteem, and/or view it as an accomplishment. Also, many will do so in a way to view themselves in a higher class than others.
6 0
3 years ago
Agan Interior Design provides home and office decorating assistance to its customers. In normal operation, an average of 2.5 cus
Phantasy [73]

Answer:

A) Single-server single-phase model (M/M/1).

\lambda=2.5 \,customers/hour\\\\\mu=6\,customers/hour

B) The goal is not met, as the average time waiting for service is 5.56 minutes.

C) The new mean service rate is 7.5 customers/hour.

In this case, the average time waiting for service is 4 minutes, so the goal is met.

Explanation:

A) This situation can be modeled as a single-server single-phase model (M/M/1).

The mean arrival rate is 2.5 customers per hour.

\lambda=2.5 \,customer/h

The mean service rate is 6 customers per hour, calculated as:

\mu=\frac{60\, min/h}{10 \,min/customer}=6\, customer/h

B) The average waiting time for a customer can be expressed as:

W_q=\frac{\lambda}{\mu}\frac{1}{\mu-\lambda}  =\frac{2.5}{6}\frac{1}{6-2.5} =0.417*0.222=0.093\,hours\\\\W_q=0.093\,hours*(60min/h)=5.56 \,min

The average waiting time is 5.56 minutes, so it is more than the goal of 5 minutes.

C) If the average time spent per customer to 8 minutes, the mean service rate becomes

\mu=\frac{60\, min/h}{8 \,min/customer}=7.5\, customer/h

An the average waiting time for the service now becomes:

W_q=\frac{\lambda}{\mu}\frac{1}{\mu-\lambda}  =\frac{2.5}{7.5}\frac{1}{7.5-2.5} =0.333*0.2=0.067\,hours\\\\W_q=0.067\,hours*(60min/h)=4 \,min

The average time is now 4 minutes, so the goal is achieved.

6 0
3 years ago
What earns interest and allows unlimited ATM use
Vesna [10]
Interest-bearing checking account.
3 0
3 years ago
Balance sheet and income statement data indicate the following: Bonds payable, 6% (issued 2000, due 2020) $1,200,000 Preferred 8
9966 [12]

Answer:

The correct option is A,5.72 times

Explanation:

The number of times that interest charges gives a sense of how financial stable is in its ability to pay interest on bonds as at when due.It is key consideration for prospective bondholders when assessing whether to buy bonds in a particular company

Number of times interest charges earned=net income before interest/interest

net income before interest charges=net income+interest charges

net income is $340,000

interest charges=$1,200,000*6%=$72,000

net income before interest charges=$340,000+$72,000=$412,000

number of times interest was earned=$412,000/$72,000=5.72

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? a. The present value of a 3-year, $150 annuity due will exceed the present value o
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

Statement a. is correct.

Explanation:

The effective annual rate is always higher than the nominal interest rate, as the formula is clear for any number of periods, for any interest rate:

Effective Annual Rate of return = (1 + \frac{i}{n})^n - 1

Further if we calculate the present value of annuity due and ordinary annuity assuming 6 % interest rate, then:

Present value of annuity due =

(1 + 0.06) \times 150 \times (\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1 + 0.06)^3} }{0.06} )

= 1.06 \times $400.95

= $425.0089

Present value of ordinary annuity = 150 \times (\frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1 + 0.06)^3} }{0.06} )

= $150 \times 2.6730

= $400.95

Therefore, value of annuity due is more than value of ordinary annuity.

Statement a. is correct.

5 0
3 years ago
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