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aev [14]
3 years ago
15

Risk is best thought of as the potential for variability in the investment’s outcomes. This means that if an investment has the

potential to provide only one possible outcome or return, then it is , while if there is more than one possible return or result, then the asset should be considered . This is why securities sold by the U.S. Treasury have historically been considered to be the securities in the world; because except in the event of the failure of the U.S. government, any investor holding a Treasury security would receive the security’s face value upon its maturity.
Business
1 answer:
SashulF [63]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

safe or risk free,  risky,  safest

Explanation:

In investment market, risk is defined as the potential for the variability in the outcomes of the investment. Thus it is meant that outcome or return of making an investment is safe and risk free if there is only one return or outcome. But if there are more than one possible return from the investment, then that investment is considered as risky. For this reason the securities sold by the United States' Treasury is considered to be the safest securities in the world as the investor will receive the face value of the security upon its maturity from the government.

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What is buying and selling?​
Allisa [31]
Buying and selling are at the centre of trading strategies that involve buying on one asset while selling another. Investors can also sell an asset in order to cut their losses. They may do this if one of there asset is dropping in value and they don't expect it to rise ever again.
8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Classify each of the statements as true or false.
Tasya [4]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Explanation  

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

7 0
3 years ago
The past five monthly returns for Kohl’s are 3.54 percent, 3.62 percent, −1.68 percent, 9.25 percent, and −2.56 percent. Compute
luda_lava [24]

Answer

The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.

Explanation  

You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.  

6 0
2 years ago
The only producer of chocolate bunnies in the world, Choco's Bunny Company, recently expanded its production capacity from 1,000
Sophie [7]

Answer:

19.82%

Explanation:

Midpoint method = Q2 - Q1 / [(Q2 + Q1) / 2] / P2 - P1 / [(P2+P1) / 2]

3.33 = 2000 - 1000 / [(2000 + 1000) / 2] / P2 - P1 / [(P2+P1)/2]

3.33 = 0.66 / (P2 - P1) / [(P2+P1)/2]

By cross multiplying we have

0.66 = 3.33 [ (P2 - P1) / [(P2+P1)/2]

divide both sides by 3.33

19.82% = The mid point change in price.

5 0
3 years ago
Forward Co. discarded a machine that cost $5,000 and was fully depreciated. The entry to record this transaction would include a
madreJ [45]

Based on the fact that Forward Co. discarded a machine with cost $5,000, the entry to record this transaction in the books would include a credit to Machinery.

<h3>How do you dispose of fixed assets?</h3>

When fixed assets are to be disposed of, the accumulated depreciation upt to that point is looked at to calculate the net book value.

This would then show the company if they made a profit or a loss when they sold the fixed asset with a profit being made when the selling price is higher than the net book value.

Regardless of the price the fixed asset is sold at, the company would record a credit to the fixed asset (machinery) account to show that the fixed asset account is decreasing.

In conclusion, there will be a credit to machinery.

Find out more on disposing fixed assets at brainly.com/question/14542603

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
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