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balandron [24]
2 years ago
8

An online retailer offers next-day shipping for an extra fee. The retailer says that 95% of customers who pay for

Mathematics
1 answer:
alekssr [168]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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In the diagram the measure of angle 3 is 105 degrees which angle must also measure 105? A.1 B.4 C.6 D.8       I NEED HELP ASAP P
faltersainse [42]

Answer: The correct option is (A). angle 1.

Step-by-step explanation:  In the given diagram, the measure of ∠3 is 105°.

We are to find the angle that must also measure 120°.

We know that the measures of two vertically opposite angles are equal.

In the given diagram, since ∠1 and ∠3 are vertically opposite angles.

So, the measures of ∠1 and ∠3 are equal.

That is,

m∠1 = m∠3.

Also, m∠3 = 105°.

Therefore, m∠1 = 105°.

Thus, the measure of angle 1 must be 105°.

Option (A) is correct.

4 0
3 years ago
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5.372 divided by 2 = please help
Misha Larkins [42]
The answer is 2.686, and i am writing these extra characters to pass the 20 character qualifications.
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3 years ago
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Hi! How do you solve this? Step by step??
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

30

Step-by-step explanation:

Substitue 3 for every x in the equation

10(3)-(3*3)(2*3)+(3)^2(2*3)

Multiply

30-(9)(6)+9(6)

30-54+54=30

7 0
3 years ago
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What is the meaning of mathematics ​
Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

mathematics is the study of numbers shapes and patterns

6 0
3 years ago
Let X ~ N(0, 1) and Y = eX. Y is called a log-normal random variable.
Cloud [144]

If F_Y(y) is the cumulative distribution function for Y, then

F_Y(y)=P(Y\le y)=P(e^X\le y)=P(X\le\ln y)=F_X(\ln y)

Then the probability density function for Y is f_Y(y)={F_Y}'(y):

f_Y(y)=\dfrac{\mathrm d}{\mathrm dy}F_X(\ln y)=\dfrac1yf_X(\ln y)=\begin{cases}\frac1{y\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}&\text{for }y>0\\0&\text{otherwise}\end{cases}

The nth moment of Y is

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^\infty y^nf_Y(y)\,\mathrm dy=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_0^\infty y^{n-1}e^{-\frac12(\ln y)^2}\,\mathrm dy

Let u=\ln y, so that \mathrm du=\frac{\mathrm dy}y and y^n=e^{nu}:

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu}e^{-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{nu-\frac12u^2}\,\mathrm du

Complete the square in the exponent:

nu-\dfrac12u^2=-\dfrac12(u^2-2nu+n^2-n^2)=\dfrac12n^2-\dfrac12(u-n)^2

E[Y^n]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac12(n^2-(u-n)^2)}\,\mathrm du=\frac{e^{\frac12n^2}}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du

But \frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2} is exactly the PDF of a normal distribution with mean n and variance 1; in other words, the 0th moment of a random variable U\sim N(n,1):

E[U^0]=\displaystyle\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{-\frac12(u-n)^2}\,\mathrm du=1

so we end up with

E[Y^n]=e^{\frac12n^2}

3 0
2 years ago
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