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grin007 [14]
3 years ago
15

A homeowner desires to sell his or her home and signs an exclusive-listing agreement, requiring payment of a six percent commiss

ion to the real estate agent. If shortly thereafter, but before the agent has time to do anything to sell the property, the owner surprisingly finds a couple who purchases it for $400,000, the homeowner:________
a. must pay a commission of $12,000, but is entitled to retain the other half because he or she found the buyer.
b. must pay a commission of $24,000 to the listing agent.
c. is not obligated to pay a commission.
d. is not obligated to pay a commission, unless the agent has placed the listing in the local multiple-listing service.
Business
1 answer:
dem82 [27]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: B. must pay a commission of $24,000 to the listing agent.

Explanation:

An exclusive listing agreement is a contractual agreement whereby a listing broker acts as the agent and in this case, the seller will pay a commission to the listing broker.

Since the homeowner has already signed an exclusive-listing agreement, which requires payment of 6% commission to the real estate agent but later finds a couple who purchases it for $400,000. In this case, the homeowner must still funlfil the terms of the contact and pay the listing agent the percentage that was agreed as commission and this will be:

= 6% × $400000.

= $24000

Therefore, $24000 must be paid to the listing agent.

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A bag contains 9 red marbles, 5 white marbles, and 6 blue marbles. You draw 4 marbles out at random, without replacement. Find t
IRINA_888 [86]

a) 0.0260

b) 0.0681

Explanation:

a)

The bag contains:

r = 9 (number of red marbles)

w = 5 (number of white marbles)

b = 6 (number of blue marbles)

So, the total number of marbles in the bag at the beginning is:

n=9+5+6=20

At the 1st attempt, the probability of choosing a red marble is:

p(r)=\frac{r}{n}=\frac{9}{20} (1)

At the 2nd attempt, the 1st red marble is not placed back, so now the number of marbles is (n-1), while the number of red marbles left is (r-1). So the probability of choosing another red marble at the 2nd attempt is

p(r)=\frac{r-1}{n-1}=\frac{8}{19} (2)

With a similar argument, the probabilities of selecting a red marble in the 3rd and 4th attempt are

p(r)=\frac{7}{18} (3)

p(r)=\frac{6}{17} (4)

Therefore, the probability of drawing 4 red marbles in the first 4 attempts without replacing is:

p(rrrr)=\frac{9}{20}\frac{8}{19}\frac{7}{18}\frac{6}{17}=\frac{3024}{116280}=0.0260

b)

At the 1st draw, the probability that the marble is not red is:

p(r^c)=1-p(r)=1-\frac{9}{20}=\frac{11}{20}

At the 2nd draw, there are 9 red marbles left and 19 total marble left. So, the probability of NOT drawing a red marble is:

p(r^c)=1-\frac{9}{19}=\frac{10}{19}

At the 3rd draw, there are 9 red marbles left and 18 total marbles left. So, the probability of NOT drawing a red marble is:

p(r^c)=1-\frac{9}{18}=\frac{9}{18}

Finally, with a similar argument the probability of NOT drawing a red marble at the 4th and last attempt is:

p(r^c)=\frac{8}{17}

So, the total probability of drawing 4 non-red marbles in the first 4 attempts is:

p(r^cr^cr^cr^c)=\frac{11}{20}\frac{10}{19}\frac{9}{18}\frac{8}{17}=\frac{7920}{116,280}=0.0681

6 0
3 years ago
Which of the following best describes the "invisible hand" concept? Group of answer choices Ample regulation of business by the
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

Self-interest in a market system will automatically promote the public interest as well.

Explanation:

An economy is a function of how money, means of production and resources (raw materials) are carefully used to facilitate the demands and supply of goods and services to meet the unending needs or requirements of the consumers.

Hence, a region's or country's economy is largely dependent on how resources are being allocated and utilized, how many goods and services are to be produced, what should be produced, for whom they are to be produced for and how much money are to be spent by the consumers to acquire these goods and services.

A free-enterprise system also referred to as capitalism or free market can be defined as a type of economy in which prices, products and services are being determined by the market rather than the government. Thus, a free-enterprise system is devoid (free) of government regulations, interference or control because the market (enterprises) are the ones who are saddled with the responsibility of determining the market forces.

Simply stated, a free-enterprise system is a type of economy that is completely driven by demand and supply of goods and services.

The "invisible hand" concept asserts that the self-interest by producers and suppliers of resources in a market system will automatically promote the public interest as well.

This ultimately implies that, public and private interest will always coincide assuming there exist competition in a free market system.

In conclusion, the invincible hand concept is a metaphorical description of the unforeseen forces that typically moves a free market system or economy.

4 0
3 years ago
Ash, Inc., has declared a dividend of $6.30 per share. Suppose capital gains are not taxed, but dividends are taxed at 20 percen
alexira [117]

Answer:

$89.41

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Dividend declared = $6.30 per share

Tax rate = 20%

Selling price of the stock = $94.45

Now,

Aftertax dividend = Dividend × ( 1 - Tax rate )

= $6.30 × ( 1 - 0.20 )

= $5.04

Thus,

Ex-dividend price = Selling price - Aftertax dividend

or

Ex-dividend price = $94.45 - $5.04

or

Ex-dividend price = $89.41

8 0
3 years ago
g Depreciation refers to which one of the following? The amount of money that is lost over a period when services are underutili
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Answer:

The answer is D

Explanation:

Depreciation is best described as An estimate of how much of a tangible asset has been used during an accounting period: considered an expense that does not require any cash outflow under the accrual basis accounting.

Depreciation reduces the value of an asset and it reduces it over the life span of an asset. Depreciation is a non cash reduction. Depreciation tells us how much the value of an asset has reduced.

The formula is (cost of the asset - any residual value) ÷ the number of useful life span

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose the consumption function is c = $200 + 0.85yd. if disposable income is $400, consumption is
alexira [117]
Given the consumption equation of c= 200 + 0.85yd, and the disposable income of $400, then, then we would get the consumption by substituting the given to the equation:c= 200 + 0.85ydc= 200 + 0.85(400)c= 200 + 340c= 540Therefore, the consumption is $540.
8 0
3 years ago
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