Answer:
- Sole Proprietorship
- Partnership
- Limited Partnership
- Limited Liability Company
Explanation:
Sole Proprietorship is the type of business in which the liability is not limited. Due to this issue, the owner is solely responsible to pay off the debts of company from his personal owned assets if the business goes bankrupt.
Partnership is just like sole proprietorship but here the partners are the only responsible persons to payoff the debt of the company because the liability is limitless. The burden of the company debts is equally shared among the partners.
Limited Partnership is less risky because the liability is limited and only the amount invested in the business is subjected to the payment of borrowings from the lenders. The limited partner is responsible for his actions which means if his misdeed resulted in fine then it would be paid from his share first and then the other partners are equally liable to for compensation if their is still any amount left.
In the case of Limited liability company, the liability is limited and the burden of the payment of the liability falls on the company. So the investor is not subjected to pay the debts of the company because the limited liability company is a separate entity and is solely liable to pay for its debts.
A group of such computers - which get interconnected in order to share information or documents are usually called a computer network.
This is a common type of networking when working in large companies or businesses.
Explanation:
It all depends on the market conventions and the bond documentation.
1 In most countries, traditionally fixed coupon bonds don’t have their coupons day counted. So if the frequency is twice a year, and the annual coupon rate is 5.5%, then each semi-annual coupon is exactly 5.5/2=2.75%. However a lot of other instruments, e.g. fixed swap legs, loans, and bonds that are really “loan participation notes”, etc. usually have their fixed coupons day counted. So each coupon amount will vary a little depending on the number of days in the accrual period, weekends and holidays.
Answer:
the principal amount at a rate of 4% is 2000
principal amount at a rate of 3.5% is 4000-2000 =2000
Explanation:
We have given total amount borrowed = $4000
Let x amount is borrowed at a rate of 4%
So $4000-x is borrowed at rate of 3.5%
Total interest = $150
We know that simple interest 
So 
0.5 x=1000
x = 2000
So the principal amount at a rate of 4% is 2000
And principal amount at a rate of 3.5% is 4000-2000 =2000
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The reason is that the opening inventory value of year 2 is the closing amount of the year 1. Its similar to the closing cash amount left in till at the end of year 1 is the opening amount at the year 2. So the opening inventory of year 2 is closing inventory of year 1. This means the closing inventory of year 1 has decreased by $10,000.
As we know that:
Cost of goods sold = Op. Inventory + Purchases - Cl. Inventory
This means if the closing amount increases the cost of goods decreases and in the given scenario the closing inventory of year 1 has been decreased which means that the cost of goods sold has increased which will decrease the profit. And if the profit decreases then:
Earning per share = Profit after tax (Decreased) / Number of share (Same)
As the profit has decreased the earning per share will also decrease.
