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aliya0001 [1]
3 years ago
11

XYZ, Inc. just paid an annual per share dividend of $3.50. Dividends are expected to grow at a rate of 3% per year from here on

out. If the risk-free rate is 2.5%, the expected return on the market is 7% and the beta of the stock is 2, what is the most that you should be willing to pay for a share of this stock today?
Business
1 answer:
Agata [3.3K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

P0 = $42.4117 rounded off to $41.41

Explanation:

Using the constant growth model of dividend discount model, we can calculate the price of the stock today. The DDM values a stock based on the present value of the expected future dividends from the stock. The formula for price today under this model is,

P0 = D0 * (1+g) / (r - g)

Where,

D0 is the dividend paid  recentl

D0 * (1+g) is dividend expected for the next period /year

g is the growth rate

r is the required rate of return or cost of equity

First we need to calculate the required rate of return on this stock using CAPM.

Using the CAPM, we can calculate the required rate of return on a stock. This is the minimum return required by the investors to invest in a stock based on its systematic risk, the market's risk premium and the risk free rate.

The formula for required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

rRF is the risk free rate

rpM is the market return

r = 0.025 + 2 * (0.07 - 0.025)

r = 0.115 or 11.5%

Using the constant growth of dividend formula,

P0 = 3.5 * (1+0.03)  /  (0.115 - 0.03)

P0 = $42.4117 rounded off to $41.41

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A manager is trying to decide whether to purchase a certain part or to have it produced internally. Internal production could us
Sergio [31]

Answer:

For both 10,000 units and 20,000 units, the best alternative is Vendor B

Explanation:

Using the information provided in the question, we can write the following:

Annual Volume of 10,000 units

Internal Alternative 1

Variable costs = 170,000 (we multiply the variable cost per unit by total units)

Fixed costs = 20,000

Total costs = 370,000

Internal Alternative 2

Variable costs = 140,000

Fixed costs = 240,000

Total costs = 380,000

Vendor A

Total cost = 200,000 (we simply multiply the price by the quantity)

Vendor B

Total cost = 180,000

Vendor C

Total cost = 190,000

The cheapest option is Vendor B

Now for the 20,000 units:

Internal Alternative 1

Variable costs = 340,000

Fixed costs = 200,000

Total costs = 540,000

Internal Alternative 2

Variable costs = 280,000

Fixed costs = 240,000

Total costs = 520,000

Vendor A

Total cost = 400,000

Vendor B

Total cost = 360,000

Vendor C

Total cost = 380,000

Therefore, Vendor B is once again, the cheapest alternative.

5 0
3 years ago
Ryan filed a lawsuit against his previous employer because he was fired without warning. Which of the following events most like
Anastasy [175]

Answer:

D. Ryan was fired from the company without prior notice.

Explanation:

none of the other answers make sense.

5 0
3 years ago
The percentage of sales approach separates accounts on the pro forma income statement and balance sheet into those that change d
lukranit [14]

Answer:

Sales

Explanation:

Sales is defined as the activities which are related to the selling or the number of the services or goods that are sold in the given period of time or year.

The seller who finished or concluded the sales in relation to the acquisition or appropriation or in a direct interaction at the time of sale with the buyer.

Therefore, the percentage of the sales method, separates the accounts on the balance sheet and pro forma income statement into those which change directly with sales.

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3 years ago
Behavior of viettel's customer
Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

Some behaviors of viettel's customer are:-

  • Complex buying behavior.
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6 0
2 years ago
A company wants to use the allowance method to account for bad debts. You are assigned to explain to the company the different m
worty [1.4K]

By debiting the allowance for doubtful accounts (ADA) and crediting the accounts receivable, the allowance method records the uncollectible and written-off amounts. The ADA is subtracted from the accounts receivable to arrive at the net realizable value (NRV).

<h3 /><h3>What is net realizable value?</h3>

A valuation approach called net realizable value (NRV), which is popular in inventory accounting, takes into consideration the total amount of money an asset can bring in from sales less an estimate of the charges, fees, and taxes related to that sale or disposal.

NRV is calculated as expected selling price minus total manufacturing and selling expenses. Use $35 for the value and the projected selling price, for instance, if a business lists things for $50 but anticipates that they will only sell for a discount of $35.

The cash sum that a corporation anticipates receiving is known as net realizable value (NRV). Consequently, net realizable value is also known as cash realizable value. The terms "net realizable value" and "current assets" are frequently used in relation to inventory and accounts receivable.

Inventory should be recorded at the lower of its cost or the amount at which it can be sold, according to the lower of cost or net realizable value principle.

The predicted selling price of an item less the costs associated with its completion, sale, and transportation is its net realizable value.

Learn more about net realizable value, here

brainly.com/question/15866211

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
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