The surface area of one cube is twice the surface area of a second cube.

Mathematics

1 answer:

Usimov [2.4K]2 years ago

4 0

Answer:

$2\sqrt{2} :1$

Step-by-step explanation:

This question was linked from another one regarding the lengths of the cubes, you can find it here: brainly.com/question/22396279

That question gave you the ratio of the lengths, which is $\sqrt{2} :1$ . Now in geometry, a general rule about solids is that if they are similar, the ratio of their volumes is the cube of the ratio of their edges. In a cube's case, every single cube known to mankind is similar as all the edges are the same length.

So the ratio of volumes would be $\sqrt{2} ^3:1^3$ , which can be simplified as $2\sqrt{2} :1$ .

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Consider the following sets of matrices: M2(R) is the set of all 2 x 2 real matrices; GL2(R) is the subset of M2(R) with non-zer

defon

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

REcall the following definition of induced operation.

Let * be a binary operation over a set S and H a subset of S. If for every a,b elements in H it happens that a*b is also in H, then the binary operation that is obtained by restricting * to H is called the induced operation.

So, according to this definition, we must show that given two matrices of the specific subset, the product is also in the subset.

For this problem, recall this property of the determinant. Given A,B matrices in Mn(R) then det(AB) = det(A)*det(B).

Case SL2(R):

Let A,B matrices in SL2(R). Then, det(A) and det(B) is different from zero. So

$\text{det(AB)} = \text{det}(A)\text{det}(B)\neq 0$ .

So AB is also in SL2(R).

Case GL2(R):

Let A,B matrices in GL2(R). Then, det(A)= det(B)=1 is different from zero. So

$\text{det(AB)} = \text{det}(A)\text{det}(B)=1\cdot 1 = 1$ .

So AB is also in GL2(R).

With these, we have proved that the matrix multiplication over SL2(R) and GL2(R) is an induced operation from the matrix multiplication over M2(R).

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2 years ago

40 POINTSSSSSS> RIGHT ANSWER ONLY!!!!. Will report if answer is faulty. PLEASE HELP MATHEMATICIANS!!!!!!!

Marat540 [252]

The probability of hitting the black circle is closer to 0 than it is to 1. because: find area of circle ~ 3.14*r^2
which is 3.14 because the radius squared is 1. so 1*3.14= 3.14
and the area of the whiteness is 121.
subtract 3.14 from 121 and you get 117.86
this answer is closer to a 0 probability than the white space. the white space is closer to a probability of 1.

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3 years ago

A 26' long painting is how many yards long?

mamaluj [8]

Answer:

The correct answer is 8 2/3yards

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2 years ago

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16% of ____ shirts are 44 How many shirts are there?

yawa3891 [41]

I don’t know, I forgot how to solve problems like this, look it up