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Sindrei [870]
3 years ago
11

Pls answer all 3

Mathematics
1 answer:
exis [7]3 years ago
7 0
Number 1 is 6,000 2 is 5,456 3 is 00.2
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Decide which of the two given prices is the better deal and explain why.
vladimir1956 [14]

Answer:

6-ounce bottle for ​$3.49 because its

.58 per ounce

3.49 divided by 6 = .58

Step-by-step explanation:

9.59 divided by 14 is .69 per ounce

chegg

6 0
2 years ago
What the slope of (5,5) and (0,1) ​
storchak [24]

Hello from MrBillDoesMath!

Answer:

Slope = 4/5

Discussion:

Slope = (change in y) / (change in x)

Slope =

(1-5)/(0-5)  =

-4/-5 =

4/5

Thank you,

MrB

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
12345 [234]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

6 0
3 years ago
Which equation could be used to find the circumference, in inches, of a garbage can if the radius of its circular basis is 10 in
victus00 [196]

Answer:

it should be D

Step-by-step explanation:

the formula is πr^2, and d is π*10^2

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Let C be the unit circle in the xy-plane, oriented counterclockwise as seen from above. The divergence of the vector field F~ =
LiRa [457]

Upper half of the unit sphere (call it S_1): parameterize by

\vec s(u,v)=(\cos u\sin v,\sin u\sin v,\cos v)

with 0\le u\le2\pi and 0\le v\le\frac\pi2. Take the normal vector to be

\dfrac{\partial\vec s}{\partial v}\times\dfrac{\partial\vec s}{\partial u}=(\cos u\sin^2v,\sin u\sin^2v,\cos v\sin v)

Then the flux of \vec F over this surface is

\displaystyle\iint_{S_1}\vec F\cdot\mathrm d\vec S=\int_0^{\pi/2}\int_0^{2\pi}(\cos v,\cos u\sin v,\sin u\sin v)\cdot(\cos u\sin^2v,\sin u\sin^2v,\cos v\sin v)\,\mathrm du\,\mathrm dv

=\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi/2}\int_0^{2\pi}\cos u\sin^2v\cos v+\cos u\sin u\sin^3v+\sin u\cos v\sin^2v=\boxed{0}

Lower half of the sphere (call it S_2): all the details remain the same as above, but with \frac\pi2\le v\le\pi. The flux is again \boxed{0}.

Unit disk (call it D): parameterize the disk by

\vec s(u,v)=(u\cos v,u\sin v,0)

with 0\le u\le1 and 0\le v\le2\pi. Take the normal vector to be

\dfrac{\partial\vec s}{\partial u}\times\dfrac{\partial\vec s}{\partial v}=(0,0,u)

Then the flux across D is

\displaystyle\iint_D\vec F\cdot\mathrm d\vec S=\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^1(0,u\cos v,u\sin v)\cdot(0,0,u)\,\mathrm du\,\mathrm dv

=\displaystyle\int_0^{2\pi}\int_0^1u^2\sin v\,\mathrm du\,\mathrm dv=\boxed{0}

7 0
3 years ago
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