Break it down into two parts. First, what is the probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw?Since there are 5 blue marbles and 10 total, the probability is 5⁄10, or 1/2. Now since we no longer have that blue marble, there are 4 blue marbles and 9 total. The chances of drawing a blue marble are 4/9. Therefore, the chance that both marbles drawn are blue is the chance that the first one is blue times the chance that the second one is blue. 1/2 * 4/9 = 4/18 = 2/9 Remember, math is always trying to trick you. It wants you to try and do the whole big problem at once, which can be difficult. Break it down into smaller problems, then use your answers to small parts to find the answer to the big question. Hope that helps,
Answer: 145 percent or 1 whole and 45 percent
Step-by-step explanation:
The x-intercept is the point where the graph cuts the x-axis, and the y-intercept is the point where the graph cuts the y-axis.
The x-axis is the line y = 0 and the y-axis is the line x = 0. To find the intercept between each axis and our graph, we just need to evaluate our function at x = 0 and y = 0.
Calculating the x-intercept, we have

The x-intercept is (8, 0).
Calculating the y-intercept, we have

The y-intercept is (0, -2).
Answer:
See below in bold.
Step-by-step explanation:
1. 0.00000402
= 4.02 * 10^-6 (Counting the digits after the decimal point until we get to the 4 gives us the -6).
2. 1,900,000
= 1.9 * 10^6 ( counting the number of digits after the 1 gives us 6).
Kate needs to swim 40 laps to come complete 66 laps