At the point when Hannah takes her first sweet from the sack, there is a 6/n chance it is orange.
This is because that there are 6 orange desserts and n desserts altogether.
When Hannah takes out her second sweet, there is a 5/(n-1) chance that it is orange.
This is because there are just 5 orange desserts let alone for an aggregate of n-1 desserts.
The possibility of getting two orange desserts in succession is the main likelihood increased by the second one: 6/n x 5/n–1
The question lets us know that the shot of Hannah getting two orange desserts is 1/3.
So: 6/n x 5/n–1 = 1/3
Now, rearrange this problem.
(6x5)/n(n-1) = 1/3
This gets to be:
30/(n² – n) = 1/3
Times by 3 on both sides:
90/(n² – n) = 1
What's more, doing likewise with (n² – n):
So (n² – n) = 90
Our answer is: n² – n – 90 = 0
The first one. Hope this helps
Be glad to tell me if it’s correct or not
Answer:
irrational this is because when you divide - 9 / 4 gives you an irrational answer
5x-3=y 6x-3=y
x=1 x=1
51-3=y 61-3=y
51=5 61=6
5-3=y 6-3=y
2 3
y=2 y=3
