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Vanyuwa [196]
3 years ago
5

Which statement is FALSE?

Business
1 answer:
morpeh [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:BB

Explanation:b

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Cross-elasticity of demand is: a.the willingness to substitute other products. b.a factor in determining resale price maintenanc
erik [133]

Cross-elasticity of demand is a) the willingness to substitute other products.

If the goods are alternative products, the cross elasticity of demand is tremendous which means that demand for one product will increase when the charge of the alternative product will increase and vice versa

If the products are complementary, go elasticity of demand is terrible which means that once the fee of 1 product will increase, demand for the opposite product decreases and vice versa.

The go-rate elasticity formulation is an equation for calculating the pass-price elasticity of call for (XED) of separate services or products: go rate elasticity (XED) = (% change in call for of product A) / (% alternate of fee of product B), wherein merchandise A and B are exceptional services.

In economics, the pass elasticity of call for or go-price elasticity of demand measures the percentage change of the quantity demanded an awesome to the percentage change in the fee of another proper, ceteris paribus.

The cross elasticity of call for is an economic concept that measures the responsiveness in the amount demanded of one good while the fee for some other correct modifications.

Learn more about Cross-elasticity here brainly.com/question/22985521

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3 0
2 years ago
Osborn Manufacturing uses a predetermined overhead rate of 18.20 per direct labor-hour. This predetermined rate was based on 12,
Leto [7]

The correct statement is that the under applied overheads for Osborn Manufacturing Company is calculates as a negative balance of $5700 at the overhead rate of $18.20.

Explanation:

The calculation of the overhead costs is done by using the formula for under applied overheads and calculating the required values from such given information.

Calculation of manufacturing overheads

The formula for the calculation of manufacturing overheads whether under applied or over applied can be determined is as below,

Under - applied Overheads = Applied Overhead - Actual overhead

However, to calculate further the actual overheads can be calculated as below by applying the given values to the formula,

Applied Overheads = Actual Level of Direct labour hours x overhead rate hours

Applied Overheads = 11500 x 18.20

Applied Overheads = $209300

Now applying the values to the formula, we get,

Under - applied Overheads=209300 - 215000

Under - applied Overheads = -$5700

Hence, the correct statement is that under applied overheads for Osborn Manufacturing Company is calculated as a negative balance of $5700 at the overhead rate of $18.20.

Learn more about manufacturing overheads here:  

brainly.com/question/13214087

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5 0
1 year ago
All of the following options are good tips for borrowing money EXCEPT...
Jlenok [28]
I would say B. Quick cash loans. Interest rates are very high & not a good idea in borrowing money. They are designed for people who have poor credit ratings & have no other means to borrow money.
5 0
2 years ago
Of these three Airlines which one is best American Airlines, United Airlines, or Delta Airlines? Please do not just answer this
Norma-Jean [14]
Deltas pretty good. That what I would choose.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
1. An 80%-owned subsidiary sells merchandise to its parent at a markup of 25% on cost. During the current year, the parent paid
Vedmedyk [2.9K]

Answer:

The unrealised profit (PURP) of $5,000 [ (125,000 * .20) * (.2) ]  should be subtracted from the profit share of Non-Controlling Interest.

Explanation:

When we prepare consolidated financial statements, we treat the companies of group as a single entity. That's why the intra-group transactions must be removed the consolidated statements. This involve adjustment of current accounts, unrealised profit on sale of goods/non-current asset, loan given by one group company to another etc.

When goods are sold by one group company to another at a markup and the buyer has not yet sold it to the third party, then the markup (profit) loading on these items is unrealised from group's point of view. This needs to be removed from the consolidated accounts because no one can make profit by trading with himself. This profit is termed as realised when the goods are sold to the third party. In the individual accounts, profit on this transaction has a credit balance so to remove it we debit the "cost of goods sold of group" and a credit entry to it is made to "inventory". This credit entry to inventory bring down the balance of inventory to what was the cost of that inventory to the group. Moreover, the recording of revenue by seller and inventory by buyer on intra-group sales and purchase is also adjusted.

After all the adjustments are made, the profit is distributed between parent's retained earnings and non-controlling interest. Now if the seller of goods is subsidiary, like in this case, the amount of unreaslised profit is deducted from NCI's profit share to calculate the profit attributable to parent's retained earnings.

7 0
3 years ago
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