Answer:
The correct answer is ASEAN+3.
Explanation:
ASEAN + 3 is the association of Southeast Asian nations, which was created in 1967 by Thailand, Indonesia, the Philippines, Singapore and Malaysia. Currently it is made up of 10 countries in Southeast Asia, and its general objective is to increase the economy of these countries and promote stability in the region. The +3 is to recognize the accession of three countries that do not belong to this region, which are: Japan, China and South Korea.
The main reason why cost of product is little in one country and more in another is because of
- profiteering measures taken by exporting companies.
- higher costs of exporting.
Cost of exportation of goods, taxes, original product cost, Profit measures are all part of reasons why exported goods are more higher in cost when compared to the cost in producing country.
The company who imported the product will ensure its makes profiton the sales and also, the cost of moving the product into the country are usually high, therefore, they all contributed to the high cost
Therefore, the Option A and E is correct because profiteering measures taken by exporting companies and higher costs of exporting contributes to the higher cost of exported products
Read more here
<em>brainly.com/question/12906042</em>
Answer:
The correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Explanation:
A triangular arbitrage can be described as the act of taking advantage of a foreign exchange market arbitrage opportunity created by a pricing difference between three different currencies.
A triangle arbitrage method entails three deals, with the first currency being converted to a second, the second currency being converted to a third, and the third currency being converted to the first.
In the question, USD is the first currency, GBP is the second currency, and CHF is the third currency. Based on the explanation above, the three steps which will create triangular arbitrage profit are as follows: first step, convert <u>USD to GBP</u>; second step, convert <u>GBP to CHF</u>, and third step, convert <u>CHF to USD</u>.
Therefore, the correct option is b) USD to GBP; GBP to CHF; CHF to USD.
Answer:
The test statistic t of the sample is -0.804.
There is sufficient evidence to ascertain that the average number of years of work experience of MBA applicants is less than 3 years.
Explanation:
Null hypothesis: The average number of years of work experience of MBA applicants is 3 years.
Alternate hypothesis: The average number of yet of work experience of MBA applicants is less than 3 years.
Test statistic (t) = (sample mean - population mean) ÷ sd/√n
sample mean = 2.57
population mean = 3
sd = 3.67
n = 47
t = (2.57 - 3) ÷ 3.67/√47 = -0.43 ÷ 0.535 = -0.804
Assuming a 5% significance level
degree of freedom = n - 1 = 47 - 1 = 46
The critical value corresponding to 46 degrees of freedom and 5% significance level is 2.013.
Conclusion:
Reject the null hypothesis because the test statistic -0.804 is less than the critical value 2.013.
The years of work experience of MBA applicants is less than 3.
Answer:
A. IFRS, tangible assets are tested only when factors suggest impairment.
Explanation:
The tested of the tangible assets would be based on some kind of changes that are change in the market value, chnage in the technology, rise or reduction in the rate of interest in the market etc
In addition to this, the intangible assets such as goodwill would be testes on annually basis
Therefore the first option is correct