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Ugo [173]
4 years ago
15

An=128 •(1/2)^n-1 a5=? ^fifth term

Mathematics
1 answer:
vovangra [49]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

8

Step-by-step explanation:

128•(½)^(5–1)

128•(½)⁴

128/16 = 8

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3 years ago
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#43 please help have mid terms Tomorrow
nirvana33 [79]

Answer:

Job A is more profitable for nearly 49 months (or 50 months including the first month)

Job B is more profitable after 49 months (or 50 months including the first month).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x be the number of months passed after first month

<u>Job A:</u>

$2,000 for the first month with a $300 raise every month thereafter

Function describing this situation:

f(x)=2,000+300x

<u>Job B:</u>

$1,500 for the first month with a 5% raise every month thereafter

Function describing this situation:

g(x)=1,500\cdot (1+0.05)^x\\ \\g(x)=1,500\cdot 1.05^x

Plot both graphs (see attached diagram). The diagram shows that the job A is more profitable for nearly 49 months (or 50 months including the first month) and the job B is more profitable after 49 months (or 50 months including the first month).

7 0
3 years ago
(problem 6.13 page 97) Consider a population in which 80% of males and 60% of females are employed. In this population, 55% of i
svp [43]

Answer:

There is a 50.77% probability that no more than one of those chosen is not employed.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they will be employed, or they will not. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

We have these following percentages:

55% of the individuals are female.

So 45% of the individuals are male.

80% of males are employed. So 20% of males are unemployed.

60% of females are employed. So 40% of females are unemployed.

If I pick five persons at random from this population, what is the probability that no more than one of those chosen is not employed?

Using the binomial distribution, p is the probability that a person is unemployed. 40% of the females and 20% of the males are unemployed. The population is 55% females and 45% males. So

p = 0.4*0.55 + 0.2*0.45 = 0.31

There are five persons, so n = 5

What is the probability that no more than one of those chosen is not employed?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{5,0}.(0.31)^{0}.(0.69)^{5} = 0.1564

P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.31)^{1}.(0.69)^{4} = 0.3513

Then

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.1564 + 0.3513 = 0.5077

There is a 50.77% probability that no more than one of those chosen is not employed.

7 0
3 years ago
Use the graph to find the solution.
DaniilM [7]

Answer:

W(2) = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Because when you look at the graph, the y value is 5 when the x value is 2.

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Answer:

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