Genevieve bought a 5/8 pound bag of chocolate chips. she used 1/3 of the bag while baking. how many pounds of chocolate chips di
1 answer:
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Answer:
Diego is correct.
He has correctly divided 1 in groups of .
Step-by-step explanation:
The question 'How many groups of 5/6 are in 1?' means that we need to divided 1 into groups of .
When we form groups from a given total, we divided the total by the size of the group.
If we are dividing number of people in groups of
number of people, then the expression to find the number of groups formed can be given as:
⇒
For this question the data given is:
So, the number of groups formed can be given as:
⇒
When divisor is a fraction, then we multiply the reciprocal of the divisor with the dividend.
⇒
⇒
In order to convert fraction to mixed number we will divide numerator with denominator and then write the quotient as whole number, remainder as numerator and the denominator remains as it is.
On dividing 6 by 5, the quotient =1 and remainder =1. Thus the mized number is:
⇒
Thus, there are or
groups in 1. This matches with Diego's answer and hence he is correct.
Answer:
which agrees with answer B
Step-by-step explanation:
First write the equation that represents this type of variation:
then we need to solve for "x" when y = 10 as shown below: