The Pre-Columbian era incorporates all period subdivisions in the history and prehistory of the Americas before the appearance of significant European influences on the American continent, spanning the time of the original settlement in the Upper Paleolithic period to European colonization during the Early Modern period.
While the phrase "pre-Columbian era" literally refers only to the time preceding Christopher Columbus's voyages of 1492, in practice the phrase is usually used to denote the entire history of indigenous Americas cultures until those cultures were exterminated, diminished, or extensively altered by Europeans, even if this happened decades or centuries after Columbus's first landing. For this reason the alternative terms of Precontact Americas, Pre-Colonial Americas or Prehistoric Americas are also in use. In areas of Latin America the term usually used is Pre-Hispanic.
The answer is most likely A)
This question is an example of the fallacy of correlation and causation.
The fallacy exists due to the fact that human beings like to find cause and effects towards the things that to not exist.
So they have to fabricate patterns that would end up making two different variables and situations to be closely similar.
Read more on fallacy here:
brainly.com/question/20939336
Each language is important since they enable people to communicate and express themselves. When one dies out, future generations won't be able to understand that culture as they lost one vital part: language. This is why so many cultures want to preserve their language, as it is a vulnerable aspect of cultural heritage. However, despite efforts, a language dies out every two weeks.
