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3 years ago

Which expression is equivalent to ,10 ? 4 o O x2.2 o o 5

Mathematics

1 answer:

Anna35 [415]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The answer is A

Step-by-step explanation:

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Find Mx, My, and (x, y) for the lamina of uniform density rho bounded by the graphs of the equations. y = x2/3, y = 0, x = 1

erik [133]

Answer:

$\mathbf{(\overline x , \overline y ) = (\dfrac{5}{8}, \dfrac{5}{14})}$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that:

$y = x^{2/3}$ at y = 0 , x = 1

Then:

Area = $\int^{1}_{0} x^{2/3} \ dx$

Area = $\begin {bmatrix} \dfrac{3}{5}x^{5/3} \end {bmatrix} ^1_0$

Area = $\dfrac{3}{5}$

Then:

$\overline x = \dfrac{1}{A} \int^b_a x (f(x) -g(x) ) \ dx$

$\overline x = \dfrac{5}{3} \int^1_0 x (x^{2/3} -0 ) \ dx$

$\overline x = \dfrac{5}{3} \int^1_0 x^{5/3} \ dx$

$\overline x = \dfrac{5}{3} \ [\dfrac{3}{8}x^{8/3}]^1_0$

$\overline x = \dfrac{5}{3} \times \dfrac{3}{8}$

$\overline x = \dfrac{5}{8}$

Similarly;

$\overline y = \dfrac{1}{A} \int^b_a \dfrac{1}{2} \begin{bmatrix} (f(x)^)2 - (g(x))^2 \end {bmatrix} \ dx$

$\overline y = \dfrac{5}{3} \int^1_0 \dfrac{1}{2} \begin{bmatrix} (f(x^{2/3})^2 -0 \end {bmatrix} \ dx$

$\overline y = \dfrac{5}{3} \int^1_0 \dfrac{1}{2} \begin{bmatrix} (x^{4/3} ) \end {bmatrix} \ dx$

$\overline y = \dfrac{5}{3} \begin{bmatrix} \dfrac{1}{2} (x^{7/3} ) \times \dfrac{3}{7} \end {bmatrix} ^1_0$

$\overline y = \dfrac{5}{3} \begin{bmatrix} \dfrac{3}{14} (x^{7/3} ) \end {bmatrix} ^1_0$

$\overline y = (\dfrac{5}{3} \times \dfrac{3}{14} )$

$\overline y = \dfrac{5}{14}$

Thus; $\mathbf{(\overline x , \overline y ) = (\dfrac{5}{8}, \dfrac{5}{14})}$

4 0

3 years ago

If f(x)=1/x+2 what is f(3+h)

Leviafan [203]

Let x = 3+h
$\frac{1}{(3 + h) + 2} \\ = \frac{1}{h + 3 + 2} \\ = \frac{1}{h + 5}$
The answer is A.

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4 years ago

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Can all one-variable inequalities be simplified to a two-step inequality? HURRY!!!

Artist 52 [7]

Next, solve as you would solve any two-step inequality. Since 2 is added to , you can get by itself on one side of the inequality by subtracting 2 from both sides. Then, to get by itself on one side of the inequality, you need to multiply both sides by 2.D

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4 years ago

What percent of 8 is 4

HACTEHA [7]

4 = amount

8 = base 

amount / base = percent 

4 / 8 = 0.50 

multiply 100 times the decimal and attact he % symbol 

100 x 0.5 = 50 % 

4 is 50% of 8

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4 years ago

What is the area of the rectangle? A = lw

Arisa [49]

Answer:

15.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Just multiply length and width together, as the formula states.

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3 years ago

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