This is for history, the question says: In Article XLII, a slave master may chain and beat his slaves, but he cannot torture or
mutilate him. What might the people who wrote this think the difference is between torture and mutilation and just chaining someone up and beating him?
A beating is far less severe than torture and mutilation.
Explanation:
Torture is far more extensive and does more damage as well as increases the chance greatly of psychological damage. Mutilation is also way too harsh due to the same facts.
China lost the Sino-Japanese War (the first one) because of the corrupt and incompetent Qing Dynasty, which brutally exploited the Chinese, especially the Han people
