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Nikolay [14]
3 years ago
5

By tying the salaries of top corporate managers to the price of the corporation's stock, corporations hope to avoid:

Business
1 answer:
Serjik [45]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

the principal-agent problem

Explanation:

In the case when there is a tied of the top corporate managers salary with the price of the corporation stock so here the corporation should avoid the principal agent problem as it deals with the conflict with respect to the priorities that lies between the person and the representative.

So the above should be the answer

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During the past year, a company had cash flow to creditors, an operating cash flow, and net capital spending of $30,026, $67,603
larisa86 [58]

Answer: $6,834

Explanation:

Given the following ;

Cash flow to creditors = $30,026

Operating Cashflow = $67,603

Net capital spending = $28,760

Beginning net working capital = $11,917

Ending working capital = $13,900

Therefore,

Net working capital = Ending working capital - beginning working capital

Net working capital = $(13,900 - 11,917) = $1,983

Cashflow from asset = (operating Cashflow - Net capital spending - net working capital)

Cashflow from asset = $67,603 - $28,760 - $1,983 = $36,860

Therefore,

Company's Cashflow to stockholders during the year = (Cashflow from asset - Cashflow to creditors)

$36,860 - $30,026 = $6,834

6 0
3 years ago
Biden Resorts Company currently has 0.2 million common shares of stock outstanding and the stock has a beta of 2.2. It also has
frutty [35]

Answer:

Hence, the weighted average cost of capital is 15.87%.

Explanation:

We have to find current weights,  

Value of equity = Shares x Share price = 0.2 x 10 = $2 million  

Face Value of Bonds FV = $1 million

Semi annual coupon P = 1 x 8% / 2 = $0.04 million

Number of coupons remaining n = 5 x 2 = 10

Semi annual yield r = 13.65% / 2 = 6.825%

Value of Debt = Px [1 - (1 + r)-n] / r + FV / (1 + r)n

= 0.04 x [1 - (1 + 0.06825)-10] / 0.06825 + 1 / (1 + 0.06825)10

= $0.8 million

Total Value = 2 + 0.8 = $2.8 million

Weight of Debt = 0.8 / 2.8 = 28.57%

Weight of Equity = 2 / 2.8 = 71.45%

Amount of Debt to be raised = Weight of debt x Capital

= 0.2857 x 7.5

= $2.14 million

Since the amount of debt to be raised is less than $2.5 million, the yield will be 13.65%  

Cost of Equity = Risk Free Rate + Beta x (Market Return - Risk Free Rate)

= 3% + 2.2 x (10 - 3)

= 18.4%

The weighted average cost of capital:-  

WACC = Weight of Debt x Cost of Debt x (1 -Tax Rate) + Weight of Equity x Cost of Equity

= 0.2857 x 13.65% x (1 - 0.3) + 0.7145 x 18.4%

= 15.87%

8 0
3 years ago
The greater the value of the marginal propensity to consume A. the greater the value of autonomous consumption. B. the greater t
just olya [345]

Answer:

C. the greater the value of the multiplier

Explanation:

As we know that

The formula to compute the Government spending multiplier is shown below:

Government spending multiplier = 1 ÷ (1 - marginal propensity to consume)

where,

Marginal propensity to consume refers to the change in consumption with regard to the change in income

So if the value of the marginal propensity to consume is higher than there would also increase in the value of the multiplier and in the same proportion it would be greater

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
To ensure that a lead is actually a prospect, the salesperson must _________________ the lead. Group of answer choices Qualify Q
Nezavi [6.7K]

Answer:

be sure

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
PAW Industries has 5 million shares of common stock outstanding with a market price of $8.00 per share. The company also has out
AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

A. 10.14%

Explanation:

1.Market value of PAW common stock:5,000,000*8=$40,000,000

2.Market value of PAW outstanding preferred stock=$10,000,000

3.Market value of PAW bonds outstanding=96,000,000(100,000*1000*96%)

Total Market value(1+2+3)=146,000,000

4.Cost of equity amount on common stock(19%*40,000,000)=7,600,000

5.Cost of preferred stock amount (15%*10,000,000)=$1,500,000

6.After tax cost of Debt amount(9%*66%*96,000,000)=$5,702,400

Total cost amount(4+5+6)=14,802,400

The WACC can be calcualted as: Total cost amount/Total market value

                                                        14,802,400/146,000,000=10.14%

The answer should be A. 10.14%

3 0
3 years ago
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