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Nuetrik [128]
3 years ago
15

What is logo e' rewritten using the power property?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vikki [24]3 years ago
3 0
Answer: flog6e

Step-by-step explanation:
The power property of logarithm rule is :

Logamn = nlogaM

Applying the logarithm of power rule in the given expression we have:

Log6eF= flog6e

The second option that is flog6e is the right option among all the given options.
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12. What assumption might you be tempted to make about the graphs of y = x, y = x3 and y = x5 based on the values you found in t
ohaa [14]

Answer:

Sorry need the cred

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
The radius of the Earth is approximately 3,960 miles. Find the approximate surface-area-to-volume ratio of the Earth.
Jobisdone [24]
To put it another way, that ratio exists, no matter what distance units you use to express lengths, such as the radius of the Earth, but using different units will result in a different numerical part. 
<span>You can't, for instance, say the the radius of the Earth is 3960, and leave it at that. </span>
<span>If someone comes along who's measuring everything in km, he'll tell you that it's 6373. </span>
<span>Or if he's using meters, he'll say it's 6,373,000. </span>
<span>Or in yards, 6,969,600. </span>

<span>So r = 3960 mi </span>
<span>And as others have said, the area, A, and volume, V, of a sphere, in terms of its radius, are </span>
<span>A = 4πr² </span>
<span>V = 4πr³/3 </span>
<span>so that the area to volume ratio is </span>
<span>A/V = 3/r </span>

<span>So the answer is </span>
<span>3/(3960 mi) = (1/1320) /mi. </span>
5 0
3 years ago
3. The ratio of boys to girls in the 9th grade is 7 to 8. There are 304 girls. How many boys are there?
Fynjy0 [20]
Answer: 266 boys
Because there are 304 girls we do 304/8=38 now we do 38 multiplied by 7 (as that is the ratio for the number of boys) 38*7=266 boys
Hope this helped
8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the area of LMNO ?
emmasim [6.3K]
Should be 60 if you multiply width (base) x height
3 0
3 years ago
Lim x tanx/ 1-cosx<br> x―&gt;0<br><br> please help... ...?
lakkis [162]
Note that 1 - cos(x) = 2sin²(x/2) 

⇒ lim x→0 xtan(x)/ [1 - cos(x)] = 

= lim x→0 xtan(x) / 2sin²(x/2) = 

= lim x→0 1/2 xtan(x) / [sin²(x/2) / (x/2)² * (x/2)²] 


Also, we know that lim x→0 sin(x)/x = lim x→0 tan(x)/x = 1 

So the limit is : 

= 1/2 lim x→0 xtan(x) / (x²/4) = 

= 1/2 lim x→0 4/x² * xtan(x) = 

= 2 lim x→0 tan(x)/x = 

<span>= 2.


I hope my answer has come to your help. Thank you for posting your question here in Brainly. We hope to answer more of your questions and inquiries soon. Have a nice day ahead!
</span>
8 0
4 years ago
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