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3 years ago

Please helpp?? hshahshsh

Mathematics

2 answers:

bixtya [17]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

2(4a + 1)

Step-by-step explanation:

combined like terms: 4a + 6a - 3a and 5 + 3 - 6

when you combined these 2 terms, it's 8 a + 2

8 a + 2 = 2(4a + 1)

your choices:

2(8a + 1) = 16a + 2 ( not what we are looking for)

2(8a + 2) = 16a + 4 ( not what we are looking for)

2(4a + 1) = 8a + 2 ( the answer that we are looking for)

8a + 4 ( we are looking for 8a+ 2 not 8a + 4)

Therefore, 2(4a + 1) is the correct answer

Stolb23 [73]3 years ago

4 0

2(4a + 1) is the answer

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3 years ago

You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first

Tomtit [17]

Answer:

$P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

$P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

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Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

$P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}$

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

$P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774$

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

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4 years ago

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Andrei [34K]

Answer:

10 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a sphere is given by the formula ...

V = 4/3πr³

The volume of a cone is given by the formula ...

V = 1/3πr²h

The ratio of the volume of the cone to that of the sphere is ...

Vcone/Vsphere = (1/3πr²h)/(4/3πr³) = h/(4r)

In order for the ratio to have a value of 1, we must have ...

h = 4r

The height of the cone must be 4×2.5 cm = 10 cm to fit all of the ice cream.

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3 years ago

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Let us add consecutive odd numbers and try to find any relationship.

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3 years ago