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podryga [215]
3 years ago
8

Find the image of D under the translation described by the translation rule T<-11, 8>

Mathematics
1 answer:
allsm [11]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

(x +(-11)) means that you move point D to the left by 11.

(y + 8) means that you move the point D up by 8

this will give you a point B

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What is the slope of the line
vfiekz [6]

Answer: 3

You can find slope by using the 'rise over run' method. Find 2 clear points and count the number of units between those points, across the x axis and up the y axis. You should have 3/1 (y/x) as your slope.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Probability is a measure of how likely an event is to occur. write the probability of the following statements:
attashe74 [19]

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a probability related question, let the event be E

We know that the likelihood of an event happening is given as

Pr(E)=1

if an event will not occur the probability is

Pr(E)=0

a. This event is impossible: Pr(E)=0

b.This event will occur more often than not, but is not extremely likely:  

Pr(E)=0<E>0.5

c.This event is extremely unlikely, but it will occur once in a while in a long sequence of trials:

Pr(E)=0<E<0.5

d.This event will occur for sure: Pr(E)=0

7 0
3 years ago
DO IT QUICK PLSSSS
Butoxors [25]
Answer: 1.5

Step by step explain:
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

Sample of 6:

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0
3 years ago
A water container has 19.5 litres of water in it. A cup holds 210 ml of water. At most 92 cups can be filled completely from the
coldgirl [10]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

A container has 19.5 liters of water

A cup can hold 210 ml of water

1 L is equivalent to 1000 ml

So, 19.5 L is equivalent to 19.5\times 1000=19,500\ ml

So, the number of requires to hold this much water

\Rightarrow n=\dfrac{19,500}{210}\\\\\Rightarrow n=92.85\ \text{cups}

92.85 implies 92 full cups and 1 cup which is partially filled. Hence, almost 92 cups can be filled completely.

5 0
3 years ago
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