Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.
If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
internal rate of return is 20.463%
Explanation:
given data
Year Cash Flow
1 $48,000
2 $46,000
3 $41,000
equipment cost = $95,000
to find out
Determine the internal rate of return
solution
we consider here internal rate of return is x
so we can say present value of inflows = present value of outflows
equate here
$95000 = 
solve it we get
x = 20.463 %
so internal rate of return is 20.463%
Answer:
$23.50 per share
Explanation:
The computation of the price per share after considering the stock dividend for the 6% is shown below:
= (Number of shares outstanding × market price per share) ÷ (Number of shares outstanding × 1 + stock dividend )
= (36,800 shares × $24.91) ÷ (36,800 shares × 1.06)
= $916,688 ÷ 39,008 shares
= $23.50 per share
Hence, the price per share is $23.50 per share
Answer:
None of the options are False.
Explanation:
CA means Current Account Balance
T means Taxes
G means Government Spending
S equals National Savings and
I equals Investment
Cheers!
