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denis23 [38]
3 years ago
5

Math!

Mathematics
1 answer:
irakobra [83]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

it takes her 1/10 of an hour

Step-by-step explanation:

math

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If alc and ab = c, prove that alb
balandron [24]

Answer:

This isn't true.

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of the case a=2, b=3 and c=6. We have that a|b, since 2|6.

We also have that ab=c, since 2*3=6. However, it is NOT true that a|b, as 2 does NOT divide 3. As this you can construct many other examples where a|c and ab=c BUT a does NOT divide b.

Other counterexamples:

a=2, b=5, c=10

a=2, b=7, c=14

a=2, b=11, c=22

a=2, b=13, c=26

3 0
3 years ago
ANSWER PLZ QUICK AND FAST WHAT THE ANSWER QUICK
morpeh [17]

-14.5v \leq -193.72 \implies\\ v \geq \frac{-193.72}{-14.5}\implies\\v \geq 13.36

You always have to switch the inequality symbol when dividing by a negative because a negative always negates a number's (other than 0) original sign.

4 0
4 years ago
a slitter assembly contains 48 blades five blades are selected at random and evaluated each day for sharpness if any dull blade
son4ous [18]

Answer:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

Step-by-step explanation:

I hope this helps.

This is what it's called dependent event probability, with the added condition that at least 1 out of 5 blades picked is dull, because from your selection of 5, you only need one defective to decide on replacing all.

So if you look at this from another perspective, you have only one event that makes it so you don't change the blades: that 5 out 5 blades picked are sharp. You also know that the probability of changing the blades plus the probability of not changing them is equal to 100%, because that involves all the events possible.

P(at least 1 dull blade out of 5)+Probability(no dull blades out of 5)=1

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

But the event of picking one blade is dependent of the previous picking, meaning there is no chance of picking the same blade twice.

So you have 38/48 on getting a sharp one on your first pick, then 37/47 (since you remove 1 sharp from the possibilities, and 1 from the whole lot), and so on.

Also since are consecutive events, you need to multiply the events.

The probability that the assembly is replaced the first day is:

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-P(no dull blades)

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-(\frac{38}{48}* \frac{37}{47} *\frac{36}{46}*\frac{35}{45}*\frac{34}{44})

P(at least 1 dull blade)=1-0.2931

P(at least 1 dull blade)=0.7068

5 0
3 years ago
Need help thanksssss
kaheart [24]

Answer:

Option c is very correct

3 0
4 years ago
4. Use the scale to find the actual length of the elephant: see image below
Lisa [10]

the scale is 0.25 in is 2 feet

The length of the elephant in the scale is 1.5 inches

So the actual length =

\frac{1.5}{0.25}  \times 2  \\ 6 \times 2 = 12

Ans : a. or 12 feet

4 0
3 years ago
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