If f(x)=x+1 and then x became 2, you would have the function f(x)=3. So basically for that function you would be going up three over 1. That function is already g(x)=4x. If X became 2, you would have g(x)=8x. The rate of up 8 and then over one. Because of that, g(x) would be higher
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Step-by-step explanation:
i got it correct:)
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Step-by-step explanation:
given that the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development (HUD) uses the median to report the average price of a home in the United States.
We know that mean, median and mode are measures of central tendency.
Mean is the average of all the prices while median is the middle entry when arranged in ascending order.
Mean has the disadvantage of showing undue figure if extreme entries are there. i.e. outlier affect mean.
Suppose a price goes extremely high, then mean will fluctuate more than median.
So median using gives a reliable estimate since median gives the middle price and equally spread to other sides.
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Step-by-step explanation:
<em>1) y ≥ x/2</em>
<em>2) y ≤ -x</em>
<em>3) x ≥ 0</em>