306/6 is 51 is you add one to one side and take away the other the six numbers become: 46, 48, 50, 52, 54, 56 as you added one to one side substituting the other you took away from, therefore the smallest would be 46.
Answer:
The first term is 42.
Step-by-step explanation:
The common difference is 142 - 140 = 2 so we have
50th term = a1 + 2(50 -1) = 140 where a1 is the first term
a1 + 98 = 140
a1 = 140 - 98 = 42.
The profitability index of an investment with cash flows in years 0 thru 4 of -340, 120, 130, 153, and 166, respectively, and a discount rate of 16 percent is: 15%.
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Profitability index</h3>
First step is to find the Net present value (NPV) of the given cash flow using discount rate PVF 16% and PV of cash flow which in turn will give us net present value of 49.7.
Second step is to calculate the profitability index
Profitability index = 49.7/340
Profitability index = .15×100
Profitability index=15%
Therefore the profitability index of an investment with cash flows in years 0 thru 4 of -340, 120, 130, 153, and 166, respectively, and a discount rate of 16 percent is: 15%.
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Therefore, the slope of the line is 1/3. In case if you want the equation too.
Therefore, the equation is y=1/3x+2/3
Answer:
N/A
1 + 1 = 2
Step-by-step explanation:
