Answer: this does not even make any sense....
Explanation:
Answer:$31,379
Explanation:Applying the
Fishers international effect
1+Ic/1+Ib=S1/S0
Where Ib represents the interest rate in base country which is Japan in this case
Ic represents the interest rate in counter country in this case,US
S0 is the base spot rate or exchange rate at the moment while S1 is the spot rate at the end of the coming year
Ic =3%=0.03
Ib=1%=0.01
So=145
Substituting in the formula
1.03/1.01=S1/125
Cross multiplying
S1=125(1.03)/1.01=127.475
So price in US at spot 127.475 will be ¥4,000,000/127.475=$31,379
Answer:
When using a financial calculator to compute the issue price of the bonds, the applicable periodic interest rate ("I") is 3.923%
Explanation:
Hi, first, the discount interest rate that you have to choose is 8%, because 9% is the coupon rate (which in our case would be 9%/2=4.5% and this is used only to find the amount to be paid semi-annually).
Now we know we have to choose 8%, but this is an effective rate (I know this is an effective rate because no units were mentioned), and by definition it is a periodic rate, but it is not the rate that we need since the payments are going to be made in a semi-annual way, therefore we need to use the following equation.
![r(semi-annual)=[1+r(annual)]^{\frac{1}{2} } -1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=r%28semi-annual%29%3D%5B1%2Br%28annual%29%5D%5E%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%20-1)
So, everything should look like this.
![r(semi-annual)=[1+0.08]^{\frac{1}{2} } -1=0.03923](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=r%28semi-annual%29%3D%5B1%2B0.08%5D%5E%7B%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D%20-1%3D0.03923)
Therefore, the periodic interest that yuo have to use to calculate the price of the bond is 3.923%
Best of luck.
Answer:
A) Joint Venture
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that in this context, Cream Bite Inc. is a Joint Venture. This is a business term that refers to an arrangement between two parties in which both combine their resources in order to meet an agreed upon goal in a more efficient manner and in a much smaller time-frame than if they were to do it separately.
If the required reserve ratio is 2.50 percent, the monetary multiplier is 40.
The money multiplier gives us the ratio of deposits to reserves (i.e. 1/R). That means, if the reserve ratio is 2.50% (i.e. 0.025), the money multiplier is 40 (i.e. 1/0.025). Thus, an initial deposit of USD 1,000 will end up creating a total of USD 40,000 in new money.
If the monetary multiplier is 5, the required reserve ratio is 20%.
Playing with the original multiplier formula, we can derive that R=1/m (m is money multiplier). If the money multiplier is 5, then the reserve ratio is 20% (i.e. 1/5 or 0.20).
