Answer:
$25,650
Explanation:
The formula for calculating the future value of an annuity is:
F = P x ([1 + I]^N - 1 ) / I
where:
- P = payment amount = $1,000
- I = interest rate = 4%
- N = number of payments = 18
F = $1,000 x ([1 + 4%]^18 - 1 ) / 4% = $1,000 x (1.04^18 - 1 ) / 4% = $1,000 x (2.026 - 1 ) / 4% = $1,000 x 1.026 / 4% = $25,650
Answer:
Dr Mohan account 627
Cr Sales 627
Explanation:
Preparation of Journal entry
If the amount of RS. 600 is the goods costing that was supplied to mohan in which the issued invoice is 10% above cost with a 5% discounts the First step will be to calculate the Invoice price.
Calculation of the invoice price
Invoice price=[600+10%*600)+[5%*(600+10%*600)]
Invoice price=(600+60)-[5%*(600+60)]
Invoice price=660-(5%*660)
Invoice price=660-33
Invoice price=627
Now let prepare the Journal entry
Dr Mohan account 627
Cr Sales 627
(Being to record good sold to Mohan)
If the required reserve ratio is 2.50 percent, the monetary multiplier is 40.
The money multiplier gives us the ratio of deposits to reserves (i.e. 1/R). That means, if the reserve ratio is 2.50% (i.e. 0.025), the money multiplier is 40 (i.e. 1/0.025). Thus, an initial deposit of USD 1,000 will end up creating a total of USD 40,000 in new money.
If the monetary multiplier is 5, the required reserve ratio is 20%.
Playing with the original multiplier formula, we can derive that R=1/m (m is money multiplier). If the money multiplier is 5, then the reserve ratio is 20% (i.e. 1/5 or 0.20).
