Answer:
Britain had an elite society that welcomed industrialization while Russia did not.
Explanation:
British elites were open to the idea of investing into railways and factories. Politically, the British also had a parliament that allowed some form of representation in the government. There was also no more serfdom at the time of industrialization in the early 1800s. On the other hand, Russian elites were very opposed to investing or industrialization as this could threaten their wealth that they already accumulated. Serfdom was still legal in Russia until March 3 1861 when Alexander II abolished it, which meant that many peasants were tied to the land and could not migrate to urban areas. Furthermore, Russia was fully autocratic unlike Britian and only saw the implementation of a parliament in 1905. All of this meant that Britain's industrialization was very quick and significantly earlier than Russia's.
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Answer:The correct answer to this open question is the following.
From 1914 to 1941, US foreign policy was influenced by isolationist sentiment. Analyze the causes for these beliefs, accounting for any significant changes from 1914 to 1941.
The causes that made the government of the United States to practice the foreign policy of neutrality or isolationism were that the US did not want to depend on anyone or to have debts with other countries that could create dependencies. The US did not want to pay for favors.
That is why US President Woodrow Wilson remained neutral at the beginning of World War I. But after the sinking of the Lusitania ship and the interception of the Zimmerman telegraph, he had to ask Congress for a declaration of war.
Something similar happened during World War II. President Franklin D. Roosevelt maintained the foreign policy of neutrality until the Japanese Air Force attacked the US Naval base at Pearl Harbor, Hawaii in December 1941.
Explanation: beacuse i said so, :)
I’m pretty sure it’s C. Please let me know if it’s right or not